CCNA1-Module 11

1 Which port numbers are commonly assigned for FTP use? (Choose two.)

• 19
• 20*
• 21*
• 22

2 What does the http portion of the URL http://www.cisco.com/edu/ communicate to a web browser?

• The web browser needs to locate the www server.
• The address is located on a site whose name is http.
• The web browser is notified as to which protocol to use.*
• The http portion represents the type of web browser that needs to be used.

3 If an application uses a protocol that exchanges data without using windowing or flow control and must rely on higher layer protocols for reliability, which protocol and transfer methods are being used?

• UDP, connection-oriented*
• UDP, connectionless
• TCP, connection-oriented
• TCP, connectionless

4 FTP provides a reliable, connection-oriented service for transferring of files. Which transport layer protocol is used for data transfer when this service is being used?

• TFTP
• TCP*
• DNS
• IP
• UDP

5 What are the features of the User Datagram Protocol (UDP). (Choose three.)

• no guaranteed delivery of datagrams*
• connection-oriented*
• provides reliable full-duplex data transmission
• reliability provided by the application layer
• connectionless
• utilizes sliding windowing techniques*

6 TCP is referred to as connection-oriented. What does this mean?

• TCP uses only LAN connections.*
• TCP requires devices to be directly connected.
• TCP negotiates a session for data transfer between hosts.
• TCP reassembles the data steams in the order that it is received.

7 Which layer of the OSI model can provide a connection-oriented, reliable data transfer between two hosts?

• Application*
• Presentation
• Session
• Transport

8 Which Application layer protocol is widely used to support resolving host names to IP addresses?

• FTP
• SMTP
• SNMP
• DNS*
• HTTP
• WWW

9 When the receiving workstation detects an error in the data it has received, it does not acknowledge receipt of the data. The source workstation retransmits the unacknowledged data. Which layer of the OSI model supports this process of retransmission?

• network
• Application*
• session
• transport

10 Which application layer protocol allows network devices to exchange management information?

• SMTP*
• SNMP
• FTP
• TFTP
• EIGRP

11 Which of the following are primary duties of the OSI transport layer? (Choose two.)

• path determination
• end-to-end connectivity*
• flow control
• security control*
• data representation
• encryption of data

12 What is the purpose of TCP/UDP port numbers?

• indicate the beginning of a three-way handshake*
• reassemble the segments into the correct order
• identify the number of data packets that may be sent without acknowledgment
• track different conversations crossing the network at the same time

13 Which protocol is used to transfer files from computer to computer but is considered connectionless?

• FTP
• TFTP
• SNMP*
• TCP
• DHCP

14 Which protocol is used by e-mail servers to communicate with each other?

• FTP
• HTTP*
• TFTP
• SMTP
• POP
• SNMP

15 What three pieces of information does the transport layer use to manage the communication of separate data streams between hosts? (Choose three.)

• port numbers
• checksum values
• authentication keys*
• sequence numbers*
• encryption algorithms *
• acknowledgment numbers

CCNA1-Module 10

1 Which device would add security to a network by not forwarding broadcasts?

• hub
• Router*
• switch
• bridge
• repeater

2 Given a host with the IP address 172.32.65.13 and a default subnet mask, to which network does the host belong?

• 172.32.65.0*
• 172.32.65.32
• 172.32.0.0
• 172.32.32.0

3 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is planning the addressing scheme for the LAN using 172.25.14.0/26. The hosts are to be assigned addresses 172.25.14.1 – 172.25.14.25. The LAN interface of the router is to be configured using 172.25.14.63 as the IP address. What would describe this addressing scheme?

• The LAN is being addressed properly.*
• The subnet that is being assigned is not a usable subnet address.
• The router LAN interface is being assigned a broadcast address.
• The subnet mask does not allow enough host addresses in a single subnet.

4 Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot connect to the Internet. The host configuration is shown in the exhibit. What are the two problems with this configuration? (Choose two.)

• The host subnet mask is incorrect.
• The host is not configured for subnetting.
• The default gateway is a network address.*
• The default gateway is on a different network than the host.
• The host IP address is on a different network from the Serial interface of the router.*

5 Refer to the exhibit. A newly hired technician is testing the connectivity of all hosts by issuing a ping command. The technician notices that a default gateway is not configured on all the hosts, but all hosts have connectivity between hosts, a fact which seems to confuse the technician. How would you explain the connectivity to the technician?

• The hosts are detecting the default gateway configured on the hub.
• The hosts are all in one LAN, so default gateway information is not needed.
• The hosts in the network only require that one host has a gateway configured.*
• The hosts in the network would only need a gateway if a switch replaces the hub.
• The hosts are using broadcast to reach each other since no gateway is configured.

6 How does subnetting provide some level of security in a network?

• The number of switches must increase.
• The collisions prevent the copying of data.
• The broadcasts are contained within a subnet.
• The number of host IP addresses is increased.*

7 Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)

• source IP address: 192.168.10.129
• source IP address: BBBB.3333.5677
• source MAC address: 5555.AAAA.6666
• destination IP address: 192.168.10.33
• destination IP address: 192.168.10.134*
• destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234*

8 Which type of routing uses manual entry of information and does not scale well in large internetworks?

• interior
• exterior
• Static*
• dynamic

9
An IP network address has been subnetted so that every subnetwork has 14 usable host IP addresses. What is the appropriate subnet mask for the newly created subnetworks?

• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.224*
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248
• 255.255.255.252

10 Refer to the exhibit. A technician is planning an addressing scheme for a branch office as shown in the exhibit. What is the status of the intended network?

• The configuration will work as planned.
• The subnetwork mask of host A is incorrect.*
• The default gateway of host A is a network address.
• The addresses on the router LAN interfaces are on the same subnetwork.
• The IP address of host A is on a different subnetwork than the subnetwork that the Ethernet router interface is on.

11 A company is planning to subnet its network for a maximum of 27 hosts. Which subnet mask would provide the needed hosts and leave the fewest unused addresses in each subnet?

• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224
• 255.255.255.240
• 255.255.255.248*

12 What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?

• only the Layer 2 source address
• only the Layer 2 destination address
• only the Layer 3 source address
• only the Layer 3 destination address
• the Layer 2 source and destination address*
• the Layer 3 source and destination address

13 Which type of routing allows routers to adapt to network changes?

• static routes*
• dynamic routing
• only default routes
• No routing is necessary.

14 What is the primary purpose of a routing protocol?

• to propagate broadcast messages
• to map IP addresses to MAC addresses*
• to switch traffic to all available interfaces
• sharing network information between routers

15 Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of 255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each subnet?

• 6
• 14
• 30
• 62*

16 Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the internetwork of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 mask. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the workgroup server's properties to allow connectivity to the network?

• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.39*
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.33
• IP address: 192.168.10.39 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 default gateway: 192.168.10.31
• IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 default gateway: 192.168.10.1

17 At which layer of the OSI model does the device reside that is functioning as the default gateway for hosts on a network?

• Layer 1
• Layer 2
• Layer 3*
• Layer 4
• Layer 5
• Layer 7
  

18 What is the purpose of a subnet mask in a network?

• A subnet mask is not necessary when a default gateway is specified.
• A subnet mask is required only when bits are borrowed on a network.
• A subnet mask is used to determine in which subnet an IP address belongs.
• A subnet mask is used to separate the 48-bit address into the OUI and the vendor serial number. *

19 A company is using a Class B IP addressing scheme and expects to need as many as 100 networks. What is the correct subnet mask to use with the network configuration?

• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.240.0*
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128
• 255.255.255.192

20 Which statements describe Layer 2 and Layer 3 packet address changes as the packet traverses from router to router? (Choose two.)

• Layer 3 header is removed and replaced at every Layer 3 device.*
• Layer 2 and Layer 3 addresses do not change when the packet traverse.
• Layer 3 source and destination addresses do not change when the packet traverse.
• Layer 2 frame header and trailer are removed and replaced at every Layer 3 device.*
• Layer 2 source and destination addresses do not change when the packet travels.

21 How does a router decide where the contents of a received frame should be forwarded?

• by matching destination IP addresses with networks in the routing table
• by matching the destination IP address with IP addresses listed in the ARP table
• by matching the destination MAC address with MAC addresses listed in the CAM table
• by forwarding the frame to all interfaces except the interface on which the frame was received*

22 Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
The subnet mask of ho

• st 2 is incorrect.
• Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.
• The switch needs an IP address that is not configured.
• The router LAN interface and host 1 are on different networks.
• The IP address of host 1
• is on a different network than is the LAN interface of the router.*
  

23 Which address is a valid subnet if a 26 bit mask is used for subnetting?

• 172.16.43.16*
• 172.16.128.32
• 172.16.243.64
• 172.16.157.96
• 172.16.47.224
• 172.16.192.252

24 What do switches and routers use to make forwarding decisions?

• Switches and routers both use IP addresses.*
• Switches and routers use both MAC and IP addresses.
• Switches use IP addresses. Routers use MAC addresses.
• Switches use MAC addresses. Routers use IP addresses.
• Switches use MAC and IP addresses. Routers use IP addresses.

25 Refer to the exhibit. A student in the Cisco network class has designed a small office network to enable hosts to access the Internet. What recommendation should the teacher provide to the student in regards to the network design?

• Replace the Layer 2 switch with a hub.*
• Replace the Layer 2 switch with a router.
• Replace the Layer 2 switch with a bridge.
• Replace the Layer 2 switch with a transceiver.

CCNA1-Module 9

1 Why is IP considered a best-effort protocol?

• IP detects lost packets.
• IP validates the content of the packets.
• IP does not provide acknowledgment of the data delivery.*
• IP reorders the packet as they arrive at the destination host.

2 Which TCP/IP model layer supports both LAN and WAN technologies?

• network access layer*
• internet layer
• transport layer
• application layer

3 Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses?

• Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.
• Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.*
• Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.
• Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.
• Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that access the Internet.

4 Why were private IP addresses developed?

• to permit dynamic assignment of IP addresses
• to permit the duplication of public IP addresses
• to minimize the utilization of reserved IP addresses
• to permit public IP addresses to be used in private networks
• to address the issue of not enough available public IP addresses*

5 Which two statements correctly describe the IP address 127.0.0.1? (Choose two.)

• It belongs to the Class A range of addresses.*
• It belongs to the Class B range of addresses.
• It belongs to the Class C range of addresses.
• It is reserved for loopback testing.*
• It is reserved for multicast group testing.
• It is reserved for unicast testing.
  

6 Which subnet mask would be assigned to the network address of 192.168.32.0 to provide 254 useable host addresses per subnetwork?

• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0*
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.248.0

7 What are two facts about how ARP resolves an IP address to a MAC address? (Choose two.)

• The originating host dynamically issues an arp –a command to obtain the destination MAC address.
• The originating host broadcasts an ARP request packet and each host in a local network receives this packet.*
• The originating host dynamically issues an icmp echo request command to obtain the destination MAC address.
• The host with the specified destination IP address sends an ARP reply packet containing its MAC address back to the originating host.*
• The host with the specified destination IP address sends an icmp echo reply packet to the originating host with its MAC address.

8 What is the purpose of a DHCP server on a network?

• to resolve MAC addresses to IP addresses
• to resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses
• to resolve host names to IP addresses
• to assign IP addresses dynamically to hosts*
• to assign a MAC address to a host

9 Refer to the exhibit. The small office LAN shown in the exhibit may eventually be connected to the Internet. According to Cisco best practice, which IP network addresses should be used?

• 12.0.0.0
• 172.0.0.0
• 172.168.0.0
• 192.32.17.0
• 192.168.67.0 *
• 225.1.5.0

10 Refer to the exhibit. Which devices are recommended to have the IP addresses manually configured?

• PC1 and PC2
• all servers*
• only PC2 Laptop
• all hosts and all servers

11 Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the Obtain an IP address automatically option shown in the exhibit?

• to configure the computer to use ARP
• to configure the computer to use DHCP*
• to configure the computer to use a routing protocol
• to configure the computer with a statically assigned IP address

12 What is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the default subnet mask?

• 192.168.0.0
• 192.168.0.255
• 192.168.32.0
• 192.168.32.254
• 192.168.32.255*

13 Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks?

• Class A
• Class B
• Class C*
• Class D
• Class E

14 Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network?

• Class A*
• Class B
• Class C
• Class D
• Class E
  

15 When a host has an empty ARP cache, what is the next step the host will take to find the destination MAC address of a remote host?

• sends an ARP request as a unicast to the server
• sends an ARP request as a unicast to the destination*
• sends an ARP request as a broadcast to all hosts in the local network
• sends an ARP request as a unicast to the default gateway

16 What is the primary responsibility of the transport layer?

• allows access to the network media
• provides data representation and encoding
• selects paths through the network for data to travel
• defines end-to-end connectivity between host applications*

17 Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct in reference to the output shown? (Choose two.)

• The LAN segment is subnetted to allow 254 subnets.
• The DNS server for this host is on the same subnet as the host.
• The host automatically obtained the IP addresses 192.168.1.100.*
• The host received the IP address from a DHCP-enabled device on the local LAN segment.*
• The host is assigned an address of 00-50-8D-F1-EA-8D by the administrator.
  

18 Which three addresses are considered to be private addresses? (Choose three.)

• 10.45.09.23*
• 15.87.234.87
• 172.32.45.90
• 172.17.78.98*
• 192.169.89.56
• 192.168.45.23*

19 How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet mask?

• 254*
• 255
• 256
• 510
• 511
• 512

CCNA1-Module 8

1 What is the function of a Layer 2 switch?

• forwards data based on logical addressing
• duplicates the electrical signal of each frame to every port
• learns the port assigned to a host by examining the destination MAC address
• determines which interface is used to forward a frame based on the destination MAC address*

2 A network administrator has a multi-floor LAN to monitor and maintain. Through careful monitoring, the administrator has noticed a large amount of broadcast traffic slowing the network. Which device would you use to best solve this problem?

• bridge
• hub
• Router*
• transceiver

3 Which networking device reduces the size of both collision domains and broadcast domains?
hub

• Layer 2 switch
• Router*
• bridge
• Repeater

4 Which devices are primarily used to extend cable segments within a collision domain by regenerating the data signals? (Choose two.)

• Switch
• Repeater*
• router
• bridge
• Hub*

5 Refer to the exhibit. Forty-eight workstations are connected to a hub. The users are able to connect to the network, but access is very slow. An entry-level technician replaces the 10 Mbps hub with 100 Mbps hub but the problem still exists. What is the most economical way to correct the problem?

• Replace the hub with a switch.*
• Replace the hub with a router.
• Replace the hub with a 1 Gbps hub.
• Replace the hub with a 10 Mbps fiber hub.

6 What is used to prevent Layer 2 switching loops?

• bridging
• segmentation
• Address Resolution Protocol
• Spanning-Tree Protocol*

7 Two newly hired technicians are discussing the implementation of a new LAN. One technician proposes installing a hub. The other technician advises installing a switch. Which statements are true about the differences between a hub and a switch? (Choose two.)

• A hub operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model.
• A hub reduces the number of collisions on a LAN.
• A hub works at a higher OSI model layer than a switch.
• A switch provides more throughput to hosts on a LAN.*
• A switch provides a collision-free environment on a LAN.*
• The number of collisions on a LAN are the same whether a hub or a switch is used.

8 Which networking devices use the MAC address to make forwarding decisions? (Choose two.)

• NIC
• Bridge*
• hub
• Switch*
• repeater

9 An administrator would like to connect ten workstations on a 192.168.0.0/24 network. The device selected by the administrator must allow connectivity between hosts without sharing bandwidth. Which device would be appropriate?

• hub
• router
• Switch*
• repeater

10 Which devices will create multiple collision domains in an Ethernet network? (Choose two.)

• NIC
• hub
• Switch*
• Router*
• repeater

11 What will a bridge do if it receives a frame with a MAC address that is not within the table?

• discard frame
• ignore frame
• send frame to appropriate port
• send frame to all ports except source port*

12 Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains exist in classroom 240?

1. 1*
2. 2
3. 5
4. 12
5. 13
6. 15

13 Exhibited is a portion of ABC Company internetwork. Which of the connections can be full duplex?

• segments 1 and 2
• segment 2
• segments 3 and 4
• segments 2, 3, and 4*
• segments 1, 2, 3, and 4

14 Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will receive the data when workstation A sends a unicast packet to workstation C?

• workstation C+
• workstations B and C
• workstations B, C, and the E0 interface of the router*
• workstations B, C, D, E, F, and the E0 interface of the router

15 A PC receives a frame. Which situation will cause the NIC on the receiving host to pass the frame contents up the OSI layers to be processed by the PC?

• The frame is a runt frame.
• The destination MAC address of the frame is FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.*
• The transmitting host generated a jam signal during the frame transmission.
• The recalculated checksum for the frame does not match the FCS on the frame.

CCNA1-Module 7

1 Which Ethernet standard does the IEEE 802.3 standard recommend for backbone installations?

• 10BASE-T
• 100BASE-T
• 100BASE-FX
• 1000BASE-LX*

2 Which statements describe Gigabit Ethernet technology? (Choose two.)

• operates at 100 Mbps
  
• typically used for backbone cabling*
  
• requires shielded twisted-pair cabling
• can be implemented over copper and fiber *
• primarily used between workstations option

3 Which of the following are Fast Ethernet technologies? (Choose two.)

• 100BASE-5
• 100BASE2
• 1000BASE-F
• 100BASE-FX*
• 100BASE-TX*

4 To make sure timing limitations are not violated when implementing a 10 Mbps Ethernet network involving hubs or repeaters, a technician should adhere to which rule?

• the 4-5-3 rule
• the 6-4-2 rule
• the 3-4-5 rule
• the 5-4-3 rule*

5 At which OSI layer do the differences between standard Ethernet, Fast Ethernet and Gigabit Ethernet occur?

• physical layer*
• data link layer
• network layer
• transport layer

6 How does 1000BASE-T use the UTP wire pairs to accomplish transmission?

• two pairs are used to transmit and two pairs are used to receive
• one pair is used to transmit, one pair is used to receive, one pair is used for clocking, and one pair is used for error correction
• all four pairs are used in parallel by both hosts to transmit and receive simultaneously*
• two pairs of wires are used as in 10BASE-T and 100BASE-TX

7 Which RJ-45 pins are used to transmit and receive data in an Ethernet 100BASE-TX Category 5 UTP cable? (Choose two.)

• 1 and 2*
• 3 and 6*
• 4 and 5
• 7 and 8
  

8 What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?

• 100 meters*
• 185 meters
• 300 meters
• 500 meters

9 Which media types can be used in an implementation of a 10BASE-T network? (Choose three.)

• Category 5 UTP*
• Category 5e UTP*
• Category 3 UTP*
• coaxial cable
• multi-mode fiber
• single mode fiber

10 Which of the following Ethernet technologies are considered legacy Ethernet? (Choose three.)

• 10BASE2*
• 10BASE5*
• 10BASE-T*
• 100BASE-T
• 100BASE-FX
• 100BASE-TX

CCNA1-Module 6

1 Refer to the exhibit. Host A is communicating with host F. What happens to a frame sent from host A to host F as it travels over the Ethernet segments?

• The frame format is modified as it passes through each switch.
• The frame format remains the same across each Ethernet segment.*
• The frame format is modified as the media speed changed at switch B and switch E.
• The frame format is modified as the media material changes between copper and fiber at switch C and switch D.

2 Which of the following are specified by IEEE standards as sublayers of the OSI data link layer? (Choose two.)

• Logical Link Control*
• Logical Layer Control
• Media Access Control*
• Logical Link Communication
• Media Access Communication
• Physical Access Communication

3 In which two layers of the OSI model does Ethernet function? (Choose two.)

• Application
• session
• Transport
• network
• data link*
• Physical*

4 Which statement describes how CSMA/CD on an Ethernet segment manages the retransmission of frames after a collision occurs?

• The first device to detect the collision has the priority for retransmission.
• The device with the lowest MAC address determines the retransmission priority.
• The devices on the network segment hold an election for priority to retransmit data
• The devices transmitting when the collision occurs DO NOT have priority for retransmission.*

5 Which two devices can provide full-duplex Ethernet connections? (Choose two.)

• Hub
• Modem
• repeater
• NIC*
• Layer 2 switch*

6 Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?

• No collisions will occur on this link.*
• Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
• The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
• The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

7 Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)

• Hosts 1 and 4 may be operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
• The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision.
• After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.*
• Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
• If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle, before transmitting.*

8 A router has an Ethernet, Token Ring, serial, and ISDN interface. Which interfaces will have a MAC address?

• serial and ISDN interfaces
• Ethernet and Token Ring interfaces*
• Ethernet and ISDN interfaces
• Token Ring and serial interfaces

9 What are three functions of a NIC in a PC? (Choose three.)

• A NIC connects the PC to the network media.*
• A NIC detects collisions on the Ethernet segment.*
• A NIC checks the formatting of data before it is transmitted.
• A NIC passes the contents of selected frames to the upper OSI layers.*
• A NIC acknowledges and retransmits data that was not received properly.
• A NIC discards frames when the destination IP address does not match the local host.

10 On a local area network, one workstation can send data on the line while it is receiving data. What type of data transfer does this describe?

• hybrid
• half duplex
• full duplex*
• Multilink

11 In an Ethernet LAN, how does the NIC know when it can transmit data?

• An Ethernet NIC transmits data as soon as the frame is received.
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data as soon as the NIC receives a token.
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data when it senses a collision.
• An Ethernet NIC transmits data after listening for the absence of a signal on the media.*

12 Which characteristics describe carrier sense multiple access collision detect (CSMA/CD)? (Choose three.)

• reliable
• point-to-point
• Nondeterministic*
• connection-oriented
• collision environment*
• first-come, first-served approach*

13 Why do hosts on an Ethernet segment that experience a collision use a random delay before attempting to transmit a frame?

• A random delay is used to ensure a collision-free link.
• A random delay value for each device is assigned by the manufacturer.
• A standard delay value could not be agreed upon among networking device vendors.
• +A random delay helps prevent the stations from experiencing another collision during the transmission.*
  

14 At what layer of the OSI model does a MAC address reside?

• 1
• 2*
• 3
• 4
• 7

15 Where does the MAC address originate?

• DHCP server database
• configured by the administrator
• burned into ROM on the NIC card*
• network configuration on the computer
• included in the creation of the processor chip

16 When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?

• The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.*
• The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
• The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
• The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

17 Refer to the exhibit. The small office network shown in the exhibit consists of four computers connected through a hub. Which configuration would cause collisions and errors on the network?

• autonegotiation
• FastEthernet
• peer-to-peer shared resources
• administratively configured full duplex*

18 How many hexadecimal digits are in a MAC address?

• 2
• 8
• 12*
• 16
• 32

19 Refer to the exhibit. A technician wants to increase the available bandwidth for the workstation by allowing the switch and the NIC on the workstation to transmit and receive simultaneously. What will permit this?

• CSMA/CD
• full-duplex*
• FastEthernet
• crossover cable

CCNA1-Module 5

1 Which of the following are benefits of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose three.)

• centralized security
• easy to create*
• very scalable
• no centralized equipment required*
• centralized administrator not required*
• centralized control of assets

2 Which statement describes a typical use of Gigabit Ethernet?

• to provide high-speed desktop connectivity for average users
• to provide connectivity to low to medium volume applications
• to provide medium volume connectivity to workgroup servers
• to provide high-speed connectivity for backbones and cross connects*

3 What type of cable would be used to make the connection between the console port of a router and a workstation?

• Crossover
• Rollover*
• straight-through
• patch

4 Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains exist in the network?

• 1
• 2*
• 4
• 7
• 8

5 Refer to the exhibit. A technician measured the lengths of the CAT 5e structured cable runs in the exhibit. How should the technician evaluate the cabling shown in the diagram to the network administrator?

• All cabling to work areas are within specifications.
• Station A and B may experience intermittent problems because the length exceeds the recommended standard.
• tation B may experience intermittent problems because the length exceeds the recommended standard.
• Station C may experience intermittent network connectivity because the length is less than the recommended standard.
• Station A and B will have intermittent problems because the length exceeds the recommended standard.
• Station C will not have network connectivity because the length is less than the recommended standard.

6 What is characteristic of how a hub operates?

• A hub selectively drops packets that represent potential security risks.
• A hub forwards data out all interfaces except the inbound interface.*
• A hub dynamically learns the interfaces to which all devices are attached.
• At start up, a hub queries the devices on all interfaces in order to learn the MAC addresses of the attached devices.
• A hub transmits a frame to a specific interface based on the destination MAC address.

7 The ends of a UTP cable are shown in the exhibit. Which cable configuration is shown?

• crossover
• rollover
• reversed-pair
• straight-through*
• split-pair
• console

8 Which items in the exhibit are DTE devices?

• A and B
• B and C
• C and D
• A and D*
• A, B, C, and D

9 What device is used to connect hosts to an Ethernet LAN and requires a straight-through UTP cable between the hosts and this device?

• NIC
• router
• Switch+
• Server*

10 At which layer of the OSI model does the MAC address of a NIC reside?

• physical
• Application
• network
• transport
• data link*
• session
  

11 Which two devices are considered OSI Layer 1 devices? (Choose two.)

• Hubs*
• routers
• bridges
• Switches
• Repeaters*

12 Refer to the exhibit. What is the appropriate cable to use at each of the numbered network connections?

• 1-crossover; 2-straight-through; 3-crossover; 4-straight-through
• 1-straight-through; 2-crossover; 3-straight-through; 4-straight-through
• 1-straight-through; 2-crossover; 3-crossover; 4-straight-through
• 1-rollover; 2-crossover; 3-straight-through; 4-straight-through*
• 1-rollover; 2-straight-through; 3-straight-through; 4-straight-through

13 Which statement is accurate about a WAN link?

• The link transmits data serially.*
• The link uses a maximum distance of 100 meters.
• The link uses the same transmission rate as all other WAN links use.
• The link uses the same standardized connector style that is used for all WAN technologies.

14 Which address does a bridge use to make filtering and switching decisions?

• source MAC
• source IP
• destination MAC*
• destination IP
• network IP address

15 Users with systems that are attached to a hub are complaining about poor response time. What device could replace the hub and provide immediate response time improvement?

• router
• Switch*
• Bridge
• repeater

16 The ends of a UTP cable are shown in the exhibit. Which cable configuration is shown?

• console
• Crossover*
• rollover
• reversed-pair
• split-pair
• straight-through

17 Which of the following are benefits of a wireless network? (Choose two.)

• higher data speeds
• better security
• Mobility*
• less expensive NIC cards
• no need to run cables to hosts*

18 Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit?

• transmission of data*
• reception of data
• clocking for the synchronous link+
• noise cancellation in transmitted data

19 What is the most common type of cabling used in LANs?

• STP
• UTP*
• coax
• fiber

20 In which situations would a crossover cable be used to connect devices in a network? (Choose two.)

• switch to PC
• switch to hub*
• switch to router
• switch to server
• switch to switch*

CCNA1-Module 4

1 A company needs to extend the LAN to six separate buildings. To limit the amount of signal attenuation on the LAN media, what type of media would be the best to use between the buildings?

• air (wireless)
• coaxial cable
• Fiber*
• shielded twisted pair
• unshielded twisted pair

2 A small company is experiencing difficulties on its LAN. After performing some tests, a technician has determined that the copper media supporting the LAN is experiencing abnormal attenuation. What are two possible causes of the problem? (Choose two.)

• defective connectors*
• excessively long cable lengths*
• use of higher grade cabling
• low frequency signals used in the media
• network cable runs isolated from other cables

3 What is a cause of crosstalk in UTP cable?

• cable pairs that are shorted
• cable pairs crossed during termination
• cabling runs installed in separate conduit
• cable pairs that are untwisted because of poor termination of the cable*
  

4 Which of the following describes frequency?

• length of each wave
• height of each wave
• number of cycles each second*
• amount of time between each wave

5 How are binary ones and zeros represented in fiber optic installations? (Choose two.)

• +5 volts/-5 volts
• 0 volts/5 volts
• light/no light*
• high to low electrical transition
• low to high electrical transition
• increasing/decreasing light intensity*
  

6 What factors need to be considered to limit the amount of signal attenuation in Ethernet cable runs? (Choose two.)

• type of users
• number of users
• length of cable*
• type of electrical equipment
• installation of connectors on the cable*

7 Which of the following are detected by the wire map test? (Choose three.)

• near-end crosstalk (NEXT)
• Opens*
• propagation delay
• return loss
• reversed-pair faults*
• short circuits*

8 To ensure reliable LAN communications, what should a technician be looking for when attaching connectors to the ends of UTP cable?

• that the white-orange/orange pair is attached first
• that the wire pairs remain twisted as much as possible*
• that one end of the shield is properly ground but not the other
• that 50 ohm termination resistors are on both ends

9 What conditions are described when transmission signals from one wire pair affects another wire pair? (Choose two.)

• Noise*
• resistance mismatch
• jitter
• Crosstalk*
• Attenuation

10 What is expected when crosstalk is present in networks with higher transmission frequencies? (Choose two.)

• jitter
• increase in crosstalk*
• higher signal attenuation
• increases in cancellation effect
• destruction of more of the data signal*

CCNA1-Module 3

1 What is the difference between a wireless NIC and an Ethernet NIC?

• The Ethernet NIC operates at 100 Mbps, whereas a wireless NIC operates at 10 Mbps.
• The Ethernet NIC uses a PCI expansion slot, and a wireless NIC cannot use an expansion slot.
• The wireless NIC uses CSMA/CA, whereas a Ethernet NIC uses token passing as an access method.
• The wireless NIC associates to an access point, and an Ethernet NIC attaches to a hub or switch using a cable.*
• The Ethernet NIC attaches to a hub or a switch using only fiber cabling, and a wireless NIC attaches to a wireless antenna using air as a network medium.

2 Select the characteristics specified by 10BaseT. (Choose three.)

• twisted pair cable*
• T style connectors
• baseband transmission*
• 10 gigabits per second data rate
• 10 megabits per second data rate*
• decimal encoded data transmission

3 Which cable connectors are used to connect a cable from a router's console port to a PC? (Choose two.)

• RJ-11
• RJ-12
• RJ-45*
• DB-8
• DB-9*
• DB-10

4 Which Ethernet implementation requires the signal on the media to be boosted at a maximum distance of 100 meters?

• 10BASE2
• 10BASE5
• 100BASE-T*
• 100BASE-FX
• 1000BASE-CX

5 Refer to the exhibit. Which answer correctly identifies the pinout of the UTP cables labeled Cable A, Cable B, and Cable C?

• A=straight, B=rollover, C=crossover
• A=rollover, B=crossover, C=straight
• A=crossover, B=straight, C=straight
• A=crossover, B=straight, C=rollover*
• A=straight, B=crossover, C=rollover
• A=rollover, B=straight, C=crossover

6 Which of the following are used for data communication signals? (Choose three.)

• light patterns*
• electrical voltages*
• controlled air pulses
• mixed media impulses
• magnetized fluid wave
• modulated electromagnetic waves*

7 What are two advantages of using fiber-optic cabling instead of UTP? (Choose two.)

• lower cost
• easer to install
• allows longer distances*
• less effected by external signals *
• easier to terminate the cable ends

8 A company is converting a cabled LAN to a wireless Ethernet LAN. What must be changed on every host on the network?

• No changes are required.
• Each host will require a new IP address.
• Each host will require an appropriate NIC or adapter.*
• Each host will require that the operating system be upgraded.

9 What does UTP cable rely on to reduce signal degradation caused by EMI and RFI?

• shielding
• magnetism
• Cancellation*
• insulation
• properly grounded connections
• RJ-45 connectors

10 What are two advantages of using UTP cable in a networking environment? (Choose two.)

• is stiffer than STP
• is less expensive than fiber*
• is easier to install than coaxial *
• provides longer distances than coaxial provides
• is less susceptible to outside noise sources than fiber is

11 Which wireless standard operates in the 5 GHZ transmission range and is capable of 54 Mbps of data throughput?

• 802.11
• 802.11a*
• 802.11b
• 802.11g

12 What factors should be considered when selecting the appropriate cable for connecting a PC to a network? (Choose two.)
type of system bus
motherboard model
distance of cable run*
speed of transmission*
computer manufacturer

13 When is a straight-through cable used in a network?

• when configuring a router
• when connecting a host to a host
• when connecting a switch to a router*
• when connecting one switch to another switch

14 What type of cable is used to make an Ethernet connection between a host and a LAN switch?

• console
• rollover
• crossover
• straight-through*

15 Refer to the exhibit. What type of cable connects the two routers together without any intermediary device?

• console
• rollover
• Crossover*
• straight-through

CCNA1-Module 2

1 Which best describes the function of the physical layer?

• Defines the electrical and functional specifications for the link between end systems.*
• Provides reliable transit of data across a physical link.
• Provides connectivity and path selection between two end sys
• Concerned with physical addressing, network topology and media access.

2 Refer to the exhibit. Which column shows the correct sequence of OSI model layers?

• A
• B
• C
• D*

3 Which of the following are data link layer encapsulation details? (Choose two.)

• A header and trailer are added.+
• Data is converted into packets.*
• Packets are packaged into frames.+
• Frames are divided into segments.*
• Packets are changed into bits for Internet travel.

4 A switch has failed in the network. As a result, only one segment of the network is down. Which type of physical network topology is implemented?

• bus
• ring
• star
• extended star*

5 Which of the following are factors that determine throughput? (Choose two.)

• types of passwords used on servers*
• type of Layer 3 protocol used
• network topology+
• width of the network cable
• number of users on the network*+

6 Which layer of the OSI model provides network services to processes in electronic mail and file transfer programs?

• data link
• Transport*
• network
• Application+

7 Which three features apply to LAN connections? (Choose three.)

• operate using serial interfaces
• make network connection using a hub*+
• limited to operation over small geographic areas+
• provide part-time connectivity to remote services*
• typically operate under local administrative control +
• provide lower bandwidth services compared to WANs*

8 Which term describes the process of adding headers to data as it moves down OSI layers?

• division
• encoding
• separation
• Segmentation*
• Encapsulation+
  

9 What is one advantage of defining network communication by the seven layers of the OSI model?

• It increases the bandwidth of a network.
• It makes networking easier to learn and understand.*
• It eliminates many protocol restrictions.
• It increases the throughput of a network.
• It reduces the need for testing network connectivity.

10 Refer to the following list. Choose the correct order of data encapsulation when a device sends information.
1. segments
2. bits
3. packets
4. data
5. frames

• 1 - 3 - 5 - 4 - 2
• 2 - 1 - 3 - 5 - 4
• 2 - 4 - 3 - 5 - 1
• 4 - 3 - 1 - 2 - 5
• 4 - 1 - 3 - 5 – 2*
• 3 - 5 - 1 - 2 - 4

11 The central hub has malfunctioned in the network. As a result, the entire network is down. Which type of physical network topology is implemented?

• bus
• Star*
• ring
• mesh

12 Which layer of the OSI model provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems where routing occurs?

• physical layer*
• data link layer
• network layer+
• transport layer

13 What is the term used to describe the transport layer protocol data unit?

• bits
• packets
• Segments+
• frames
• data streams*

14 Which of the following are ways that bandwidth is commonly measured? (Choose three.)

• GHzps
• Kbps*
• Mbps*
• Nbps
• MHzps
• Gbps *

15 Refer to the exhibit. Identify the devices labeled A, B, C, and D in the network physical documentation.

• A=bridge, B=switch, C=router, D=hub
• A=bridge, B=hub, C=router, D=switch*
• A=bridge, B=router, C=hub, D=switch
• A=hub, B=bridge, C=router, D=switch

16 Which of the following are layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

• Application*
• Physical
• Internet*
• Network Access*
• Presentation

17 What makes it easier for different networking vendors to design software and hardware that will interoperate?

• OSI model*
• proprietary designs
• IP addressing scheme
• standard logical topologies
• standard physical topologies

18 Which two features apply to WAN connections? (Choose two.)

• operate using serial interfaces*+
• make network connection using a hub
• limited to operation over small geographic areas
• typically operate under local administrative control*
• provide lower bandwidth services compared to LANs+

19 In your opinion (this has no bearing on your grade), please rate your motivation to do well in this course:

• (1) Not At All Motivated
• (2) Slightly Motivated
• (3) Motivated
• (4) Very Motivated
• (5) Completely Motivated*

20 In your opinion (this has no bearing on your grade), please indicate how enthusiastic you are about the content of this course and the things you’re learning (or have learned):

• (1) Not At All Enthusiastic
• (2) Slightly Enthusiastic
• (3) Enthusiastic*
• (4) Very Enthusiastic
• (5) Completely Enthusiastic

21 In your opinion (this has no bearing on your grade), please indicate your interest in this course:

• (1) Not At All Interested
• (2) Slightly Interested
• (3) Interested
• (4) Very Interested*
• (5) Completely Interested

CCNA1-Module 1

1 What are three conditions that would require a network administrator to install a new NIC? (Choose three.)

• whenever a NIC is damaged**
• when there is a need to provide a secondary or backup NIC**
• when there is a change from copper media to wireless**
• whenever operating system security patches are applied
• whenever the PC has been moved to a different location

2 Which of the following are popular web browsers? (Choose two.)

• Acrobat
• Internet Explorer**
• Macromedia Flash
• Netscape Navigator**
• Quicktime
• World Wide Web

3 Convert the Base 10 number 116 into its eight bit binary equivalent. Choose the correct answer from the following list:

• 01111010
• 01110010
• 01110100**
• 01110110
• 01110111
• 01010110

4 Which device connects a computer with a telephone line by providing modulation and demodulation of incoming and outgoing data?

• NIC
• CSU/DSU
• Router
• Modem**
• telco switch

5 Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

• 11110010
• 11011011
• 11110110
• 11100111**
• 11100101
• 11101110

6 Represented as a decimal number, what is the result of the logical ANDing of binary numbers 00100011 and 11111100?

• 3
• 32**
• 35
• 220
• 255

7 Which phrases describe a byte? (Choose two.)

• a single binary digit
• +5 volts of electricity
• the value range 0 to 127
• a grouping of eight binary digits**
• a single addressable data storage location**

8 What is the hexadecimal equivalent for the binary number 10001110?

• 22
• 67
• 142
• AE
• 8E**

9 Convert the binary number 01011011 into its hexadecimal equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

• 5A
• 5B**
• 5C
• 5D
• 6B
• 7A

10 What is the binary equivalent for the decimal number 162?

• 10101010
• 10100010**
• 10100100
• 10101101
• 10110000
• 10101100

11 Which specialized equipment is used to make a physical connection from a PC to a network?

• router
• RAM
• CD ROM
• network interface card**

12 What is the hexadecimal equivalent for the binary number 00100101?

• 15
• 20
• 25**
• 30
• 37
• 40

13 What is the binary equivalent for decimal number 149?

• 10010111
• 10010101**
• 10011001
• 10010111
• 10101011
• 10101101

14 What is the binary equivalent for the decimal number 248?

• 11100000
• 11110000
• 11110100
• 11111000**

15 Several computers in the company require new NICs. A technician has located a good price on the Internet for the purchase of these NICs. Before these NICs are purchased and installed, what details must be verified? (Choose three.)

• the MAC address on the NIC**
• the size of the RAM on the NIC
• the bandwidth supported by the NIC**
• the type of media supported by the NIC
• the type of network architecture supported by the NIC*+*

16 In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits?

• 128
• 254
• 255
• 256**
• 512
• 1024

CCNA2-final

1 What is accomplished by segmenting a LAN with a bridge?

• *increase large collision domains
• reduce large collision domains
• reduce small broadcast domains
• increase small broadcast domains

2 How many Telnet sessions can take place simultaneously on a router running a standard edition of the IOS?

• 4
• *5
• 8
• 10

3 What is a disadvantage of cut-through switching?

• *no error checking
• a decrease in error checking
• decrease in number of collision domains
• decrease in bandwidth
• increased latency

4 Which of the following are data link layer encapsulation details? (Choose two.)

• *Packets are put into frames.
• Data is packaged into a packet.
• Data is segmented into segments.
• Data is converted for Internet travel.
• *An address is added to identify the directly connected device.

5 Select the characteristics specified by 10BaseT. (Choose three.)

• *twisted pair cable
• T style connectors
• *baseband transmission
• 10 gigabits per second data rate
• *10 megabits per second data rate
• decimal encoded data transmission

6 A LAN is to be added to an unused router Ethernet interface. What steps must be performed to configure this interface to allow connectivity to the hosts on this
LAN? (Choose two.)

• *Enter the command no shutdown.
• A password must be set on the interface.
• The interface DCE clock rate must be set.
• The interface must be configured for virtual terminal access.
• *The interface must be configured with an IP address and subnet mask.
• The router must be put in setup mode in order for the interface to be configured

7 Which media types can be used in an implementation of a 10BASE-T network? (Choose three.)

• Category 5 UTP *
• Category 5e UTP *
• Category 3 UTP *
• coaxial cable
• multi-mode fiber
• single mode fiber

8 If 4 bits are borrowed from the host field of a Class C address to create subnets, what will the range of usable host addresses be in the last subnet?

• .224 to .239
• .225 to .239
• .225 to .254
• .241 to .254
• .241 to .255
• *.240 to .255

9 Which of the following describe how a device on a LAN builds a table of MAC addresses? (Choose two.)

• *by monitoring the traffic that occurs on the local network segment
• via FTP from the nearest router
• by sending a request to the nearest domain name server
• *by broadcasting an ARP request

10 Which of the following best describes how the Gigabit Ethernet, Media Access Control method views the link?

• ring
• shared bus
• point-to-point *
• star
• extended star

11 What is the purpose of Positive Acknowledgment and Retransmission (PAR)?

• PAR allows the presentation layer to request that data be resent in a format the
• destination host can process.
• PAR provides a mechanism for the receiving device to request that all segments be retransmitted if one segment is corrupt.
• *PAR helps ensure that a number of data segments sent by one host are received by another host before additional data segments are sent.
• PAR is used to renegotiate the window size during the synchronization process.

12 Which criteria identify a Class B address? (Choose two.)

• decimal number in first octet between 127-191
• decimal number in first octect between 128-192
• *decimal number in first octect between 128-191
• first bit of binary IP address is 0
• *first two bits of binary IP address are 10
• first three bits of IP binary address are 110

13 An administrator has made routing protocol changes to a router's configuration. To ensure that the changes are implemented, the active configuration is saved and the router is reloaded. After the router has initialized, the output on the screen displays "Would you like to enter the initial configuration dialog?[yes/no]:" Why did this dialog appear?

• There was a POST failure.
• The incorrect IOS loaded.
• There was an error in the startup configuration file.
• *The configuration register was set to ignore NVRAM.

14 What operations are performed during router initialization? (Choose three.)

• *The IOS is loaded into RAM.
• *The generic bootstrap loader tests all interfaces.
• All directly connected network devices are identified.
• *A valid configuration file is loaded from NVRAM if specified by the configuration register.
• A question driven setup menu is presented if a valid configuration file cannot be loaded.

15 For a network manager planning the installation of a new network, which of the following will be needed to implement a typical 10BASE-T network installation? (Choose three.)

• RJ-11
• BNC connectors
• RJ-48 patch cables
• RJ-45 connectors *
• Category 5 UTP cables *
• hubs or switches *

16 A company with a Class B license needs to have a minimum of 1,000 subnets with each subnet capable of accommodating 50 hosts. Which mask below is the appropriate one?

• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.240.0
• 255.255.255.0
• *255.255.255.192
• 255.255.255.224

17 A network administrator can establish a remote session to a host using the Router> telnet 192.168.1.1 command but is unsuccessful when using the Router> telnet Boston command to connect to the same interface. Which of the following could bethe problem? (Choose two.)

• *The ip host table on the router is not configured.
• The command telnet Boston was issued from the wrong router prompt.
• The routing table is missing.
• *Domain name services are not available.

18 Which of the following network components would be considered Layer 1 devices? (Choose three.)

• *hub
• router
• bridge
• switch
• *repeater
• *transceiver

19 What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?

• *100 meters
• 185 meters
• 300 meters
• 500 meters

20 What is the result of executing the erase startup-config command?

• It deletes the active configuration file from RAM.
• *It deletes the backup configuration file in NVRAM.
• It deletes the saved configuration file from ROM.
• It deletes the saved configuration file from the C: drive.

21 Which of the following imposes boundaries on broadcast traffic?

• Bridge
• Repeater
• *Router
• Transceiver

22 Which utility shows the route a packet takes to reach its destination?

• netstat
• ping
• Telnet
• *traceroute

23 Which device is considered a multi-port bridge?

• hub
• router
• *switch
• gateway
• transceiver
• repeater

24 What organization developed the TCP/IP reference model?

• Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
• National Intstitute of Standards and Technology (NIST)
• Department of the Navy (DoN)
• Department of Defense (DoD) *
• Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT)
• Stanford University

25 Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?

• CDP running on Router D will gather information about routers A, B, C, and E.
• *By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.
• If routers D and E are running different routing protocols, they will not exchange CDP information.
• Router E can use CDP to identify the IOS running on Router B.

26 How would an administrator configure a static route for use if a primary route failed?

• configure the route with a metric greater than the default value
• configure the route and the router will activate it as needed
• configure the route to activate by using the redistribute static command
• *configure the route with an administrative distance greater than the default value

27 Convert the Hexadecimal number A2 into its Base 10 equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.

• 156
• 158
• 160
• *162
• 164
• 166

28 What happens on an Ethernet network after a collision occurs? (Choose three.)

• *A backoff algorithm is invoked and transmission is stopped.
• Devices involved in the collision have a random period of time for priority retransmission of the damaged packet.
• The devices involved in the collision release a token indicating the time each station may begin retransmitting.
• *The devices involved in the collision do not have priority to transmit data.
• *The devices with data to transmit return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
• Transmit work will restart with the reissuance of all data.

29 Which of the following types of networks pass a token sequentially to each host?(Choose two.)

• Ethernet
• *Token Ring
• *FDDI
• Frame Relay
• ISDN

30 What is the length of a MAC address?

• 8 bits
• 8 bytes
• 24 bits
• 24 bytes
• *48 bits
• 48 bytes

31 Which of the following are TCP services? (Choose three.)

• address resolution
• *end-to-end communication
• *flow control
• *reliability of data delivery
• path determination
• data representation

32 Routers have different types of memory. Choose the answer that describes RAM.

• *provides working storage
• stores a fully functional IOS image
• stores the startup configuration file
• initializes the code used in router startup

33 Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and subnetworks?

• Router# show ip interfaces
• Router# show ip connections
• *Router# show ip route
• Router# show ip networks

34 Which of the following statements describe distance vector routing updates? (Choose three.)

• Topology changes are transmitted to all routers at once.
• *Routers send their entire routing tables in distance vector updates.
• *Path cost metrics for each route are included in the updates.
• Periodic updates are sent directly to every router in the network.
• *Routing updates are sent periodically to adjacent routers.
• Routers send only the state of their own links in distance vector updates.

35 Which ICMP message type notifies source hosts that a receiving host or network i
s not available?

• time exceeded
• redirect
• *destination unreachable
• source quench
• parameter problem
• echo reply

36
How many total subnets are created by applying the subnet mask 255.255.252.0 to a Class B network?

• 4
• 6
• *64
• 252
• 255
• 1024

37 Which of the following conditions will cause a router using holddown timers to ignore an update?

• an update from a different router with a better metric
• an update from a different router with a poorer metric
• an update from the same router with a better metric
• *an update from the same router with a poorer metric

38 Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?

• type-of-service
• identification
• flags
• *time-to-live
• header checksum

39 Which of the following is a network type that is widely used in dialup networking?

• shared media
• *point-to-point
• extended shared media
• point-to-multipoint

40 When a network administrator applies the subnet mask 255.255.255.248 to a Class A address, for any given subnet, how many IP addresses are available to be assigned to devices?

• 1022
• 510
• 254
• 126
• 30
• *6

41 Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) operates at which OSI Layer?

• physical layer
• network layer
• *data link layer
• presentation layer

42 Which protocol can be used to load or retrieve Cisco IOS images to or from a router?

• SNMP
• *TFTP
• UDP
• TCP

43 Which of the following is a transport layer protocol of the TCP/IP model?

• FTP
• *UDP
• IP
• TFTP

44 Which of the following is created with switched full-duplex transmission?

• more collision domains
• fewer collision domains
• *no collision domains
• no increase in broadcast domains
• more broadcast domains

45 Which of the following IP addresses are broadcast addresses if the subnet mask is 255.255.255.240? (Choose three.)

• *75.32.75.15
• 205.16.35.11
• *199.254.129.111
• *129.130.17.143
• 135.22.55.93
• 105.33.62.213

46 What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?

• dynamic
• interior
• *static
• standard

47 What is used to resolve known IP addresses to unknown MAC addresses?

• *ARP
• DNS
• DHCP
• RARP

48 Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?

• session
• *transport
• network
• data link

49
Which of the following are benefits of creating a subnetwork structure in an IP network? (Choose three.)

• permits network address duplication
• *allows for address flexibility
• *prevents address replication
• provides broadcast containment
• *adds low-level security
• allows for more network hosts available

50 How many IP addresses can be assigned to host devices on each subnet of a Class B network with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.248?

• 3
• 5
• *6
• 8
• 30
• 8190

51 After a Telnet session has been suspended, which actions will restart the session? (Choose two.)

• *pressing Enter to restart the most recent session
• *using the resume command followed by a session ID
• typing the session ID followed by pressing Enter
• using the resume command followed by the IP address

52 Which layer of the OSI model covers physical media?

• *Layer 1
• Layer 2
• Layer 3
• Layer 4
• Layer 5
• Layer 6

53 Which protocol is used by FTP to transfer files over the Internet?

• *TCP
• SMTP
• UDP
• SNMP

54 Which of the following factors should be considered when selecting a routing protocol to be implemented in an enterprise network? (Choose three.)

• *bandwidth consumption
• *router memory requirements
• router location
• spanning tree size
• *router processor capability
• flow control capability

55 A ping 192.1.1.20 command is issued on workstation A to determine if workstationB can be reached. What events will occur if this command is successful? (Choose two.)

• The router will block the ping request message.
• The router will reply to the echo request with a proxy ping response.
• Workstation A will send a UDP ping request message to workstation B.
• Workstation B will send a UDP ping reply message to workstation A.
• *Workstation A will send an ICMP echo request message to workstation B.
• *Workstation B will send an ICMP echo reply message to workstation A.

56 Which mode will a router enter if it is unable to locate a valid startup configuration file during the boot process?

• Boot mode
• Config mode
• *Setup mode
• Startup mode

57 Which protocol of the TCP/IP model internet layer provides connectionless, best-effort-delivery of datagrams?

• ARP
• ICMP
• *IP
• RARP
• TCP
• DNS

58 Which of the following does a router use to make a forwarding decision?

• *destination IP address
• MAC address
• source IP address
• encapsulation address
• default gateway

59 Routers have different types of memory. Choose the answer that describes NVRAM.

• provides working storage
• stores a fully functional IOS image
• *stores the startup configuration file
• initializes the code that is used to boot the router

60 Which statement is correct concerning routing and routed protocols? A routed protocol allows the routers to communicate with other routers and maintain tables for a routing protocol.

• *A routing protocol allows routers to communicate with other routers and maintai
• n tables for a routed protocol.
• Routers only need to use routing protocols to work properly.
• There is no difference between routed and routing protocols.

CCNA2-Module 11

1 Assuming the ACL in the graphic is correctly applied to an interface, what effect will the ACL have on network traffic?

• All traffic to network 172.16.0.0 will be denied.
• All TCP traffic will be permitted to and from network 172.16.0.0.
• All telnet traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network to any destination will be denied.*
• All port 23 traffic to the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied.
• All traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied to any other network.

2 Create a standard ACL that will deny traffic from 192.5.5.25 to the 210.93.105.0 network but will allow traffic from all other hosts. (Choose two.)

• Router(config)# access-list 22 deny 192.5.5.25 0.0.0.0
• Router(config)# access-list 22 deny host 192.5.5.25 0.0.0.0
• Router(config)# access-list 22 permit any any
• Router(config)# access-list 22 deny 192.5.5.25 0.0.0.0*
• Router(config)# access-list 22 permit any
• Router(config)# access-list 22 deny host 192.5.5.25*
• Router(config)# access-list 22 permit any
• Router(config)# access-list 22 deny 192.5.5.0 0.0.0.255
• Router(config)# access-list 22 permit any
  

3 The following commands were entered on a router:
Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any
What can be concluded about this set of commands?

• The access list statements are misconfigured.
• All nodes on 172.16.0.0 will be denied access when these statements are applied.
• The default wildcard mask, 0.0.0.0 is assumed.*
• The default wildcard mask 255.255.255.255 is assumed.

4 ACL statements operate in sequential, logical order. If a condition match is true, the rest of the ACL statements are not checked. If all of the ACL statements are unmatched, what happens to the packet?

• The packets will be placed in a buffer and forwarded when the ACL is removed.
• The packets will be sent to the source with an error notification message.
• The implicit permit any statement placed at the end of the list will allow the packets to flow through uninhibited.
• The implicit deny any statement placed at the end of the list will cause the packets to be dropped.*

5 Choose the command that will correctly configure a standard ACL.

• Router# access-list 10 permit any
• Router# access-list 101 permit any
• Router(config)# access-list 10 permit any*
• Router(config)# access-list 101 permit any
• Router(config)# access-list 10 permit any any

6 Select the commands that will apply the ACL in the diagram to filter traffic going to the 192.168.2.0 network.

• Router1# configure terminal
• Router1(config)# access-list 10 in E0
• Router1(config)# interface ethernet 0
• Router1(config-if)# access-list 10 in
• Router2(config)# interface s1
• Router2(config-if)# ip access-group 10 out
• Router2(config)# interface ethernet 0*
• Router2(config-if)# ip access-group 10 out
• Router1(config)# interface ethernet 0
• Router1(config-if)# ip access-group 10 out
• Router2# configure terminal
• Router2(config)# access-group 10 out

7 Which statements are true regarding the meaning of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)

• The first 29 bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.
• The last three bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.*
• The first 32 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.
• The first 29 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.*
• The last four bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.

8 The router IOS tests each condition statement in an ACL in sequence. Once a match is made, which of the following occurs? (Choose two.)

• The entire ACL must be deleted and recreated.
• The accept or reject action is performed.*
• The packet is forwarded to the next hop.
• The remaining ACL statements are not checked.*
• The router goes through the list again to verify that a match has been made.

9 Select the correct statements about extended ACLs. (Choose two)

• Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.
• Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.
• Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.*
• Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.*
• Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.

10 Which of the following are reasons to use ACLs? (Choose three.)

• to provide a basic level of security for network access*
• to speed up network performance by filtering priority packets
• to preserve bandwidth by providing a mechanism for traffic flow control*
• to decide which packets are forwarded or blocked at the router console port
• to screen certain hosts to either allow or deny access to part of a network*
• to allow all packets passing through the router access to all parts of the network

11 Which of the following parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)

• packet size
• protocol suite*
• source address*
• destination address*
• source router interface
• destination router interface

12 Which statement is true regarding wildcard masks?

• The wildcard mask and subnet mask perform the same function.
• The wildcard mask is always the inverse of the subnet mask.
• A "0" in the wildcard mask identifies IP address bits that must be checked.*
• A "1" in the wildcard mask identifies a network or subnet bit.

13 Select the statements that describe ACL processing of packets. (Choose three.)

• An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.*
• A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.*
• A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement.
• A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by default.
• Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.*
• Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.

14 An access list has been created that will deny the host 204.204.7.89 access to an ftp server located at 196.6.13.254.
access-list 111 deny tcp 204.204.7.89 0.0.0.0 196.6.13.254 0.0.0.0 eq 21
access-list 111 permit tcp any any
Which of the following groups of commands will place this ACL in the proper location?

1. Router2(config)# interface s0/0
2. Router2(config-if)# ip access-group 111 in
3. Router2(config)# interface fa0/0
4. Router2(config-if)# ip access-group 111 out
5. Router2(config)# interface fa0/0*
6. Router2(config-if)# ip access-group 111 in
7. Router3(config)# interface fa0/0
8. Router3(config-if)# ip access-group 111 in
9. Router3(config)# interface s0/1
10. Router3(config-if)# ip access-group 111 out
11. Router3(config)# interface fa0/0
12. Router3(config-if)# ip access-group 111 out

15 Choose the commands that will correctly configure a standard ACL. (Choose two.)

• Router(config)# access-list 97 permit host 192.5.5.1*
• Router(config)# access-list 32 permit 210.93.105.3 0.0.0.0*
• Router(config)# access-list 148 permit 201.100.11.2 0.0.0.0
• Router(config)# access-list 107 permit host 192.5.5.1 213.45.27.0 0.0.0.255 eq 23
• Router(config)# access-list 10 permit tcp 192.5.5.1 0.0.0.255 201.100.11.0 0.0.0.255 eq 80

16 Assuming the ACL in the graphic is correctly applied to an interface, what effect will this ACL have on network traffic?

• Host 192.168.15.4 will be denied ftp access to any destination, but will be permitted all other access.*
• All ftp traffic to host 192.168.15.4 will be denied.
• All traffic from that interface will be denied.
• No traffic will be denied because a "permit" statement does not exist in this ACL.

17 Create an access list that will prevent only the host 192.5.5.148 from accessing a web site located at 210.93.105.50.

• access-list 10 deny tcp host 192.5.5.148 host 210.93.105.50 eq 80
• access-list 10 permit tcp any any
• access-list 10 deny tcp 192.5.5.148 0.0.0.0 210.93.105.50 0.0.0.0 eq 23
• access-list 10 permit tcp any any
• access-list 100 deny tcp 192.5.5.148 0.0.0.0 210.93.105.50 0.0.0.0 eq 80*
• access-list 100 permit tcp any any
• access-list 100 deny tcp 192.5.5.148 0.0.0.255 210.93.105.50 0.0.0.255 eq 80
• access-list 100 permit tcp any any
• access-list 100 deny tcp host 192.5.5.148 255.255.255.255 210.93.105.50 255.255.255.255 eq 80
• access-list 100 permit tcp any any

18 A router that has two Ethernet interfaces and one serial interface is configured to route both IP and IPX. What is the maximum number of IP ACLs that can be configured to filter packets on this router?

• 1
• 2
• 3
• 6
• 12*

19 Which of the following matches an ACL identification number with the correct protocol?(Choose three.)

1. 0 - standard IP
2. 99 - standard IP*
3. 100 - extended IP*
4. 210 - extended IP
5. 678 - extended IPX
6. 888 - standard IPX*

CCNA2-Module 10

1 A computer programmer is developing software that requires a reliable stream of data. Which protocol can be used in the software design to eliminate the need for building error detection and recovery into the application program?

• TCP*
• IP
• ICMP
• UDP
• HTTP

2 Which of the following would an administrator do to defend against a denial of service SYN flooding attack? (Choose two.)

• Hide the source of incoming IP addresses.
• Decrease the connection timeout period.*
• Synchronize all host communication.
• Increase the connection queue size.*
• Flood the network with false SYN requests.

3 What is the purpose of Positive Acknowledgment and Retransmission (PAR)?

• PAR allows the presentation layer to request that data be resent in a format the destination host can process.
• PAR provides a mechanism for the receiving device to request that all segments be retransmitted if one segment is corrupt.
• PAR helps ensure that a number of data segments sent by one host are received by another host before additional data segments are sent.*
• PAR is used to renegotiate the window size during the synchronization process.

4 Which of the following describe types of port numbers that can be represented in the header of TCP and UDP segments? (Choose two.)

• connectionless
• well-known*
• operational
• dynamic*
• static

5 Why is TCP considered a connection-oriented protocol?

• It establishes a virtual connection between hosts using a two-way handshake.
• It uses IP to guarantee delivery of packets between hosts.
• It requires hosts to go through a synchronization process prior to data transmission.*
• It creates a connection that depends on application layer protocols for error detection.

6 What is the purpose of using port numbers in the transport layer?

• to identify the segment as being either TCP or UDP
• to provide reliability during data transport
• to identify the interface port number used by the router when forwarding data
• to track multiple conversations that occur between hosts*

7 What does TCP use to ensure reliable delivery of data segments?

• upper layer protocols
• lower layer protocols
• sequence numbers*
• port numbers

8 Which authority has control over the assignment of port numbers for applications?

• IEEE
• IANA*
• InterNIC
• Software Developers Association

9 Which of the following describes how TCP adds reliability to communication? (Choose two.)

• Hosts using TCP set up virtual circuits at the beginning of the transmission using the three-way handshake.*
• Hosts using TCP set the error-checking frequency at the beginning of the transmission and maintain this frequency for the duration.
• The receiving host acknowledges that it has received the expected number of segments and requests additional data.*
• The receiving host acknowledges any incorrectly received data and requests retransmission of damaged or missing bytes.

10 Which address is dynamically assigned by the source host when forwarding data?

• destination IP address
• destination port number
• default gateway address
• source IP address
• source port number*

11 Which of the following are functions of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)

• translation of data
• synchronization*
• path determination
• flow control*
• data representation
• reliability*

12 Which transport layer unit of information places the port number in the header?

• data
• segment*
• packet
• frame
• bit

13 What is the purpose of the three-way handshake that occurs between hosts using TCP as the transport layer protocol?

• to determine the number of packets that can be sent before an acknowledgment is required
• to allow a host to forward data to a router
• to establish a round trip connection between sender and receiver before data is transferred*
• to provide a mechanism for data encryption and compression

14 At which point in the transmission process are segments numbered?

• when received
• when reassembling
• before transmission*
• while negotiating window size

15 What type of segment and data is shown in the graphic?

• a UDP segment carrying e-mail traffic
• a TCP segment carrying FTP traffic
• an IP segment carrying FTP traffic
• a UDP segment carrying web traffic
• a TCP segment carrying web traffic*
• an IP segment carrying e-mail traffic

16 When a host receives a data segment, what allows the host to determine which application should receive the segment?

• IP source address
• IP destination address
• PAR
• sliding window
• port number*
• SYN packet

17 Which statement is true regarding the TCP protocol?

• Flow control at the transport layer is provided by adding a sequence number to each segment.
• A sliding window allows for communicating devices to negotiate the amount of unacknowledged data that can be sent.*
• A window size of 1 would require a receiving device to send ACK 1 after the Segment 1 has been received.
• TCP is used by sending hosts to segment large data files prior to transmission while IP is used by receiving host to reassemble the smaller segments.

18 What is used by both TCP and UDP when creating a segment?

• IP address
• MAC address
• IPX address
• socket or port number*
• acknowledgment number
• sequence number

19 What is used by UDP to determine if the data or header has been transferred without corruption?

• lower layer protocols
• checksum*
• PAR
• sliding window
• acknowledgment and retransmission
• IP

20 How are originating source port numbers assigned during the data encapsulation process?

• assigned manually by the user when starting the application
• assigned dynamically by the source host*
• assigned by the routing protocol during the lookup process
• assigned by the destination host during session negotiation

21 Which of the following protocols uses UDP for transport layer services?

• SMTP
• HTTP
• DNS*
• FTP

22 Which of the following determines the amount of data that can be sent without an acknowledgment when sending a TCP segment?

• segment number
• priority number
• window size*
• value in the length field
• value in the port field
• acknowledgment number

23 During the encapsulation process, in which order are the IP address, MAC address, and port number assigned when the router is establishing communication with the TFTP server?

• IP address, MAC address, port number
• MAC address, IP address, port number
• port number, IP address, MAC address*
• port number, MAC address, IP address

24 Which of the following describes a type of denial of service attack designed to exploit the normal function of the TCP three-way handshake?
A host sends a packet with a spoofed source IP address.*
A host sends a packet with an incorrect destination IP address.
A source sends a packet containing a garbled header.
A host sends an oversized packet that fills the memory buffers of the destination host.
A host sends a packet that contains a virus.
A host sends a packet that contains a worm.

CCNA2-Module 9

1 Which ICMP message type notifies source hosts that a receiving host or network is not available?

• time exceeded
• redirect
• destination unreachable*
• source quench
• parameter problem
• echo reply

2 Which two are true regarding the debug commands? (Choose two.)

• Debug commands may be issued from the user EXEC prompt.
• The command undebug all will turn off all debug operations.*
• By default, the router sends the debug output and messages to the telnet session.
• The high processor overhead incurred using debug may disrupt normal router operation.*
• The debug all command provides a summary view of router activity and can be used frequently for troubleshooting.
• The show debugging command will display current events such as traffic on an interface and error messages generated by nodes on the network.

3 Which of the following commands can be used to statically configure default routes? (Choose two.)

• ip static-route
• *** ip route
• ip network-route
• *** ip default-network
• ip default-static

4 At which OSI layer does the routing of email packets from the source network to the destination network occur?

• application
• session
• transport
• *** network

5 When issuing the show interfaces serial1 command, a network administrator receives the output shown in the graphic. What are the possible causes of an increase in the number of input errors? (Choose three.)

• There could be Layer 3 addressing problems.
• *** There could be a problem with faulty telephone equipment.
• *** The router hardware could be defective.
• There is an incorrectly configured encapsulation on the interface.
• *** There could be a problem with the cabling.

6 Which two are true regarding the output shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)

• Network 192.168.44.0 is 610 routers away from the source router.
• *** A packet destined for host 192.168.80.24 will be forwarded out the Serial0 interface.
• The subnet mask for the networks is 255.255.255.240.
• *** The router is receiving IGRP updates through its serial interface.
• This router is using three different routing protocols.

7 The show interfaces command provides line and protocol status information. Which of the following conditions would never occur in the output of this command?

• serial1 is up, line protocol is up
• serial1 is up, line protocol is down
• serial1 is down, line protocol is down
• *** serial1 is down, line protocol is up
• serial1 is administratively down, line protocol is down

8 After issuing the command traceroute 192.168.4.2 from Router A, the following information is returned.

• Tracing the route to Router_D (192.168.4.2)
• 1 Router_B (192.168.2.2) 16 msec 16 msec 16 msec
• 2 * * *
• 3 * * *
• What can be concluded about the network shown in the graphic based on the output given?
• Network 192.168.5.0 is missing from the routing table on Router A.
• *** There is a problem with the connection between Router B and Router C.
• Router C is not running CDP.
• Some of the routers are non-Cisco devices.
• Router B was not able to return ICMP TEMs to Router A.
  

9 During the lookup process when forwarding a packet, a router checks its routing table for the best path to the destination. If a route has an administrative distance of 0, what does this indicate to the router?

• The packet should be discarded.
• The destination is unreachable.
• *** The destination is a directly connected network.
• The source of the update for that route is unreliable.

10 Which of the following would be the default administrative distance of a static IP route that references the IP address of the next hop?

• 0
• *** 1
• 5
• 20

11 Which items would be displayed when the show ip protocol command is executed? (Choose three.)

• *** sources of routing updates
• *** networks being advertised
• routing protocol up or down
• configured routed protocols
• Layer 2 status of the interface
• *** update timer values

12 A network administrator suspects that a network is not being included in the routing updates. Which command will provide information on when the next update is due and which networks are advertised in the update?

• Router# show interfaces
• Router# show controllers serial
• *** Router# show ip protocols
• Router# show ip route
• Router# show running-config

13 Which of the following lines from the show interfaces output would indicate a Layer 2 problem?

• Serial1 is up, line protocol is up.
• *** Serial1 is up, line protocol is down.
• Serial1 is down, line protocol is down.
• Serial1 is administratively down, line protocol is down.

14 After issuing the show interfaces command, a technician notices the line "Serial1 is down, line protocol is down" in the output. Which of the following are possible reasons for this message output? (Choose three.)

• There is a mismatch in the encapsulation type on both ends of the link.
• *** A Layer 1 issue exists.
• *** An interface problem exists.
• The clockrate was not set during configuration.
• *** There is no usable media for the protocol.
• Keepalive messages are not being sent.
  

15 Refer to the network graphic. A packet needs to travel from Router F to Router A. Which path would be selected by the RIP routing protocol if the default metrics are used?

• F, G, E, D, B, A
• F, E, D, C, A
• *** F, E, D, A
• F, E, D, B, A

16 Which command will verify the functionality of all seven layers of the OSI model on a network host?

• ping
• *** telnet
• tracert
• debug

17 Why does a router build a routing table? (Choose two.)

• *** to list available routes for forwarding data
• to map local Layer 2 addresses to the remote Layer 3 destination address
• to dynamically send periodic updates regarding the router's status
• to prevent routing loops when redundant links are added to the network
• *** to select the best path to a destination

18 Which of the following are advantages of using a static route? (Choose three.)

• *** secure operation
• highly adaptable
• low maintenance configuration
• *** low processor overhead
• *** precise control of path selection

19 After issuing the show interfaces serial1 command, an administrator notices an increasing number of carrier transitions. What are the possible causes for this increase? (Choose two.)

• There is an incorrect encapsulation configured on the interface.
• *** There could be an interruption in the line by the service provider.
• *** There is a faulty switch or CSU/DSU.
• There is noise on the serial line.

20 Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and subnetworks?

• Router# show ip interfaces
• Router# show ip connections
• *** Router# show ip route
• Router# show ip networks

21 Consider the RIP network shown in the diagram. Which entries would be listed in the routing table of Router A?

• R 192.168.5.2[120/1] via 192.168.15.0, 00:00:09, Serial0
• R 192.168.15.0[120/1] via 192.168.5.2, 00:00:13, Serial1
• *** R 192.168.15.0[120/1] via 192.168.5.1, 00:00:13, Serial0
• R 192.158.5.1 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2 00:00:29, Serial1
• R 192.168.15.0 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2, 00:00:29, Serial1
• R 192.158.5.1 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2 00:00:18, Serial0
• R 192.168.15.2 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2, 00:00:18, Serial

22 The network administrator shown in the graphic can ping the E0 interface of the HAR router, but the telnet intranet.xyz.com command issued from her workstation fails to open a session with the intranet.xyz.com server. Which of the following could cause this problem? (Choose two.)

• *** upper-layer application problems
• *** domain name system problems
• IP debugging problems
• IP routing problems
• ICMP connectivity problems

23 Refer to the network and routing table entries shown in the graphic. What will happen when a packet destined for network 192.66.7.0 is received by Router A?

• It will be forwarded through interface S1.
• It will be forwarded to the default route.
• It will be directed toward the Internet.
• *** It will be discarded.

24 Which three correctly pair a routing metric with its description? (Choose three.)

• hop count - the number of routers traversed to reach a destination
• *bandwidth - the amount of time it takes a packet to travel a link
• *load - the amount of activity on a link
• *delay - the link speed
• reliability - the error rate on a link

25 When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in the output?

• D, SWH-2
• A, B, D
• SWH-1, SWH-2
• *B, D
• SWH-1, A, B
• A, B, D, SWH-1, SWH-2

26 A network technician has discovered that a router in the network can no longer be reached. The technician attempts to verify Layer 1 functionality, but is unable to physically inspect the cables. Which command can be used to determine the type of cable connected to the router?

• Router# show interfaces
• *Router# show controllers serial
• Router# show ip route
• Router# show ip protocol
• Router# show version
• Router# show running-config

27 The network administrator is using a PC to access a router via the router console port. Both the PC and the router are powered on and a cable has been connected between them. However, a session cannot be established. Which steps might fix this problem? (Choose two.)

• **Verify the cable is properly connected at each end.
• Reseat the network card in the PC.
• **Verify the cable is the correct type.
• Verify that a password has been set on the console line.
• Check the transceiver for link lights.
• Reseat the console card on the router.

28 Which of the following is a problem at the physical layer of the OSI model?

• incorrect file formatting
• incorrect encapsulation on a serial interface
• incorrect routing protocol
• incorrect cable type*