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Tampilkan postingan dengan label CCNA 2. Tampilkan semua postingan
Tampilkan postingan dengan label CCNA 2. Tampilkan semua postingan

30 Mei 2009

CCNA2-final

1 What is accomplished by segmenting a LAN with a bridge?
  • *increase large collision domains
  • reduce large collision domains
  • reduce small broadcast domains
  • increase small broadcast domains

2 How many Telnet sessions can take place simultaneously on a router running a standard edition of the IOS?
  • 4
  • *5
  • 8
  • 10

3 What is a disadvantage of cut-through switching?
  • *no error checking
  • a decrease in error checking
  • decrease in number of collision domains
  • decrease in bandwidth
  • increased latency

4 Which of the following are data link layer encapsulation details? (Choose two.)
  • *Packets are put into frames.
  • Data is packaged into a packet.
  • Data is segmented into segments.
  • Data is converted for Internet travel.
  • *An address is added to identify the directly connected device.

5 Select the characteristics specified by 10BaseT. (Choose three.)
  • *twisted pair cable
  • T style connectors
  • *baseband transmission
  • 10 gigabits per second data rate
  • *10 megabits per second data rate
  • decimal encoded data transmission

6 A LAN is to be added to an unused router Ethernet interface. What steps must be performed to configure this interface to allow connectivity to the hosts on this
LAN? (Choose two.)
  • *Enter the command no shutdown.
  • A password must be set on the interface.
  • The interface DCE clock rate must be set.
  • The interface must be configured for virtual terminal access.
  • *The interface must be configured with an IP address and subnet mask.
  • The router must be put in setup mode in order for the interface to be configured

7 Which media types can be used in an implementation of a 10BASE-T network? (Choose three.)
  • Category 5 UTP *
  • Category 5e UTP *
  • Category 3 UTP *
  • coaxial cable
  • multi-mode fiber
  • single mode fiber

8 If 4 bits are borrowed from the host field of a Class C address to create subnets, what will the range of usable host addresses be in the last subnet?
  • .224 to .239
  • .225 to .239
  • .225 to .254
  • .241 to .254
  • .241 to .255
  • *.240 to .255

9 Which of the following describe how a device on a LAN builds a table of MAC addresses? (Choose two.)
  • *by monitoring the traffic that occurs on the local network segment
  • via FTP from the nearest router
  • by sending a request to the nearest domain name server
  • *by broadcasting an ARP request

10 Which of the following best describes how the Gigabit Ethernet, Media Access Control method views the link?
  • ring
  • shared bus
  • point-to-point *
  • star
  • extended star
11 What is the purpose of Positive Acknowledgment and Retransmission (PAR)?
  • PAR allows the presentation layer to request that data be resent in a format the
  • destination host can process.
  • PAR provides a mechanism for the receiving device to request that all segments be retransmitted if one segment is corrupt.
  • *PAR helps ensure that a number of data segments sent by one host are received by another host before additional data segments are sent.
  • PAR is used to renegotiate the window size during the synchronization process.

12 Which criteria identify a Class B address? (Choose two.)
  • decimal number in first octet between 127-191
  • decimal number in first octect between 128-192
  • *decimal number in first octect between 128-191
  • first bit of binary IP address is 0
  • *first two bits of binary IP address are 10
  • first three bits of IP binary address are 110

13 An administrator has made routing protocol changes to a router's configuration. To ensure that the changes are implemented, the active configuration is saved and the router is reloaded. After the router has initialized, the output on the screen displays "Would you like to enter the initial configuration dialog?[yes/no]:" Why did this dialog appear?
  • There was a POST failure.
  • The incorrect IOS loaded.
  • There was an error in the startup configuration file.
  • *The configuration register was set to ignore NVRAM.

14 What operations are performed during router initialization? (Choose three.)
  • *The IOS is loaded into RAM.
  • *The generic bootstrap loader tests all interfaces.
  • All directly connected network devices are identified.
  • *A valid configuration file is loaded from NVRAM if specified by the configuration register.
  • A question driven setup menu is presented if a valid configuration file cannot be loaded.

15 For a network manager planning the installation of a new network, which of the following will be needed to implement a typical 10BASE-T network installation? (Choose three.)
  • RJ-11
  • BNC connectors
  • RJ-48 patch cables
  • RJ-45 connectors *
  • Category 5 UTP cables *
  • hubs or switches *

16 A company with a Class B license needs to have a minimum of 1,000 subnets with each subnet capable of accommodating 50 hosts. Which mask below is the appropriate one?
  • 255.255.0.0
  • 255.255.240.0
  • 255.255.255.0
  • *255.255.255.192
  • 255.255.255.224

17 A network administrator can establish a remote session to a host using the Router> telnet 192.168.1.1 command but is unsuccessful when using the Router> telnet Boston command to connect to the same interface. Which of the following could bethe problem? (Choose two.)
  • *The ip host table on the router is not configured.
  • The command telnet Boston was issued from the wrong router prompt.
  • The routing table is missing.
  • *Domain name services are not available.

18 Which of the following network components would be considered Layer 1 devices? (Choose three.)
  • *hub
  • router
  • bridge
  • switch
  • *repeater
  • *transceiver

19 What is the maximum distance that 10BASE-T will transmit data before signal attenuation affects the data delivery?
  • *100 meters
  • 185 meters
  • 300 meters
  • 500 meters

20 What is the result of executing the erase startup-config command?
  • It deletes the active configuration file from RAM.
  • *It deletes the backup configuration file in NVRAM.
  • It deletes the saved configuration file from ROM.
  • It deletes the saved configuration file from the C: drive.

21 Which of the following imposes boundaries on broadcast traffic?
  • Bridge
  • Repeater
  • *Router
  • Transceiver
22 Which utility shows the route a packet takes to reach its destination?
  • netstat
  • ping
  • Telnet
  • *traceroute

23 Which device is considered a multi-port bridge?
  • hub
  • router
  • *switch
  • gateway
  • transceiver
  • repeater

24 What organization developed the TCP/IP reference model?
  • Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
  • National Intstitute of Standards and Technology (NIST)
  • Department of the Navy (DoN)
  • Department of Defense (DoD) *
  • Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT)
  • Stanford University

25 Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
  • CDP running on Router D will gather information about routers A, B, C, and E.
  • *By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.
  • If routers D and E are running different routing protocols, they will not exchange CDP information.
  • Router E can use CDP to identify the IOS running on Router B.

26 How would an administrator configure a static route for use if a primary route failed?
  • configure the route with a metric greater than the default value
  • configure the route and the router will activate it as needed
  • configure the route to activate by using the redistribute static command
  • *configure the route with an administrative distance greater than the default value

27 Convert the Hexadecimal number A2 into its Base 10 equivalent. Select the correct answer from the list below.
  • 156
  • 158
  • 160
  • *162
  • 164
  • 166

28 What happens on an Ethernet network after a collision occurs? (Choose three.)
  • *A backoff algorithm is invoked and transmission is stopped.
  • Devices involved in the collision have a random period of time for priority retransmission of the damaged packet.
  • The devices involved in the collision release a token indicating the time each station may begin retransmitting.
  • *The devices involved in the collision do not have priority to transmit data.
  • *The devices with data to transmit return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
  • Transmit work will restart with the reissuance of all data.

29 Which of the following types of networks pass a token sequentially to each host?(Choose two.)
  • Ethernet
  • *Token Ring
  • *FDDI
  • Frame Relay
  • ISDN

30 What is the length of a MAC address?
  • 8 bits
  • 8 bytes
  • 24 bits
  • 24 bytes
  • *48 bits
  • 48 bytes

31 Which of the following are TCP services? (Choose three.)
  • address resolution
  • *end-to-end communication
  • *flow control
  • *reliability of data delivery
  • path determination
  • data representation

32 Routers have different types of memory. Choose the answer that describes RAM.
  • *provides working storage
  • stores a fully functional IOS image
  • stores the startup configuration file
  • initializes the code used in router startup

33 Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and subnetworks?
  • Router# show ip interfaces
  • Router# show ip connections
  • *Router# show ip route
  • Router# show ip networks

34 Which of the following statements describe distance vector routing updates? (Choose three.)
  • Topology changes are transmitted to all routers at once.
  • *Routers send their entire routing tables in distance vector updates.
  • *Path cost metrics for each route are included in the updates.
  • Periodic updates are sent directly to every router in the network.
  • *Routing updates are sent periodically to adjacent routers.
  • Routers send only the state of their own links in distance vector updates.

35 Which ICMP message type notifies source hosts that a receiving host or network i
s not available?
  • time exceeded
  • redirect
  • *destination unreachable
  • source quench
  • parameter problem
  • echo reply

36
How many total subnets are created by applying the subnet mask 255.255.252.0 to a Class B network?
  • 4
  • 6
  • *64
  • 252
  • 255
  • 1024

37 Which of the following conditions will cause a router using holddown timers to ignore an update?
  • an update from a different router with a better metric
  • an update from a different router with a poorer metric
  • an update from the same router with a better metric
  • *an update from the same router with a poorer metric

38 Which IP packet field will prevent endless loops?
  • type-of-service
  • identification
  • flags
  • *time-to-live
  • header checksum

39 Which of the following is a network type that is widely used in dialup networking?
  • shared media
  • *point-to-point
  • extended shared media
  • point-to-multipoint

40 When a network administrator applies the subnet mask 255.255.255.248 to a Class A address, for any given subnet, how many IP addresses are available to be assigned to devices?
  • 1022
  • 510
  • 254
  • 126
  • 30
  • *6

41 Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) operates at which OSI Layer?
  • physical layer
  • network layer
  • *data link layer
  • presentation layer

42 Which protocol can be used to load or retrieve Cisco IOS images to or from a router?
  • SNMP
  • *TFTP
  • UDP
  • TCP

43 Which of the following is a transport layer protocol of the TCP/IP model?
  • FTP
  • *UDP
  • IP
  • TFTP

44 Which of the following is created with switched full-duplex transmission?
  • more collision domains
  • fewer collision domains
  • *no collision domains
  • no increase in broadcast domains
  • more broadcast domains

45 Which of the following IP addresses are broadcast addresses if the subnet mask is 255.255.255.240? (Choose three.)
  • *75.32.75.15
  • 205.16.35.11
  • *199.254.129.111
  • *129.130.17.143
  • 135.22.55.93
  • 105.33.62.213

46 What type of routing uses information that is manually entered into the routing table?
  • dynamic
  • interior
  • *static
  • standard

47 What is used to resolve known IP addresses to unknown MAC addresses?
  • *ARP
  • DNS
  • DHCP
  • RARP

48 Which of the following OSI layers offers reliable, connection-oriented data communication services?
  • session
  • *transport
  • network
  • data link

49
Which of the following are benefits of creating a subnetwork structure in an IP network? (Choose three.)
  • permits network address duplication
  • *allows for address flexibility
  • *prevents address replication
  • provides broadcast containment
  • *adds low-level security
  • allows for more network hosts available

50 How many IP addresses can be assigned to host devices on each subnet of a Class B network with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.248?
  • 3
  • 5
  • *6
  • 8
  • 30
  • 8190

51 After a Telnet session has been suspended, which actions will restart the session? (Choose two.)
  • *pressing Enter to restart the most recent session
  • *using the resume command followed by a session ID
  • typing the session ID followed by pressing Enter
  • using the resume command followed by the IP address

52 Which layer of the OSI model covers physical media?
  • *Layer 1
  • Layer 2
  • Layer 3
  • Layer 4
  • Layer 5
  • Layer 6

53 Which protocol is used by FTP to transfer files over the Internet?
  • *TCP
  • SMTP
  • UDP
  • SNMP

54 Which of the following factors should be considered when selecting a routing protocol to be implemented in an enterprise network? (Choose three.)
  • *bandwidth consumption
  • *router memory requirements
  • router location
  • spanning tree size
  • *router processor capability
  • flow control capability

55 A ping 192.1.1.20 command is issued on workstation A to determine if workstationB can be reached. What events will occur if this command is successful? (Choose two.)
  • The router will block the ping request message.
  • The router will reply to the echo request with a proxy ping response.
  • Workstation A will send a UDP ping request message to workstation B.
  • Workstation B will send a UDP ping reply message to workstation A.
  • *Workstation A will send an ICMP echo request message to workstation B.
  • *Workstation B will send an ICMP echo reply message to workstation A.

56 Which mode will a router enter if it is unable to locate a valid startup configuration file during the boot process?
  • Boot mode
  • Config mode
  • *Setup mode
  • Startup mode

57 Which protocol of the TCP/IP model internet layer provides connectionless, best-effort-delivery of datagrams?
  • ARP
  • ICMP
  • *IP
  • RARP
  • TCP
  • DNS

58 Which of the following does a router use to make a forwarding decision?
  • *destination IP address
  • MAC address
  • source IP address
  • encapsulation address
  • default gateway

59 Routers have different types of memory. Choose the answer that describes NVRAM.
  • provides working storage
  • stores a fully functional IOS image
  • *stores the startup configuration file
  • initializes the code that is used to boot the router

60 Which statement is correct concerning routing and routed protocols? A routed protocol allows the routers to communicate with other routers and maintain tables for a routing protocol.
  • *A routing protocol allows routers to communicate with other routers and maintai
  • n tables for a routed protocol.
  • Routers only need to use routing protocols to work properly.
  • There is no difference between routed and routing protocols.

CCNA2-Module 11

1 Assuming the ACL in the graphic is correctly applied to an interface, what effect will the ACL have on network traffic?
  • All traffic to network 172.16.0.0 will be denied.
  • All TCP traffic will be permitted to and from network 172.16.0.0.
  • All telnet traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network to any destination will be denied.*
  • All port 23 traffic to the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied.
  • All traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network will be denied to any other network.
2 Create a standard ACL that will deny traffic from 192.5.5.25 to the 210.93.105.0 network but will allow traffic from all other hosts. (Choose two.)
  • Router(config)# access-list 22 deny 192.5.5.25 0.0.0.0
  • Router(config)# access-list 22 deny host 192.5.5.25 0.0.0.0
  • Router(config)# access-list 22 permit any any
  • Router(config)# access-list 22 deny 192.5.5.25 0.0.0.0*
  • Router(config)# access-list 22 permit any
  • Router(config)# access-list 22 deny host 192.5.5.25*
  • Router(config)# access-list 22 permit any
  • Router(config)# access-list 22 deny 192.5.5.0 0.0.0.255
  • Router(config)# access-list 22 permit any

3 The following commands were entered on a router:
Router(config)# access-list 2 deny 172.16.5.24
Router(config)# access-list 2 permit any
What can be concluded about this set of commands?
  • The access list statements are misconfigured.
  • All nodes on 172.16.0.0 will be denied access when these statements are applied.
  • The default wildcard mask, 0.0.0.0 is assumed.*
  • The default wildcard mask 255.255.255.255 is assumed.

4 ACL statements operate in sequential, logical order. If a condition match is true, the rest of the ACL statements are not checked. If all of the ACL statements are unmatched, what happens to the packet?
  • The packets will be placed in a buffer and forwarded when the ACL is removed.
  • The packets will be sent to the source with an error notification message.
  • The implicit permit any statement placed at the end of the list will allow the packets to flow through uninhibited.
  • The implicit deny any statement placed at the end of the list will cause the packets to be dropped.*

5 Choose the command that will correctly configure a standard ACL.
  • Router# access-list 10 permit any
  • Router# access-list 101 permit any
  • Router(config)# access-list 10 permit any*
  • Router(config)# access-list 101 permit any
  • Router(config)# access-list 10 permit any any

6 Select the commands that will apply the ACL in the diagram to filter traffic going to the 192.168.2.0 network.
  • Router1# configure terminal
  • Router1(config)# access-list 10 in E0
  • Router1(config)# interface ethernet 0
  • Router1(config-if)# access-list 10 in
  • Router2(config)# interface s1
  • Router2(config-if)# ip access-group 10 out
  • Router2(config)# interface ethernet 0*
  • Router2(config-if)# ip access-group 10 out
  • Router1(config)# interface ethernet 0
  • Router1(config-if)# ip access-group 10 out
  • Router2# configure terminal
  • Router2(config)# access-group 10 out

7 Which statements are true regarding the meaning of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.7? (Choose two.)
  • The first 29 bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.
  • The last three bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.*
  • The first 32 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.
  • The first 29 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.*
  • The last four bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.

8 The router IOS tests each condition statement in an ACL in sequence. Once a match is made, which of the following occurs? (Choose two.)
  • The entire ACL must be deleted and recreated.
  • The accept or reject action is performed.*
  • The packet is forwarded to the next hop.
  • The remaining ACL statements are not checked.*
  • The router goes through the list again to verify that a match has been made.
9 Select the correct statements about extended ACLs. (Choose two)
  • Extended ACLs use a number range from 1-99.
  • Extended ACLs end with an implicit permit statement.
  • Extended ACLs evaluate the source and destination addresses.*
  • Port numbers can be used to add greater definition to an ACL.*
  • Multiple ACLs can be placed on the same interface as long as they are in the same direction.

10 Which of the following are reasons to use ACLs? (Choose three.)
  • to provide a basic level of security for network access*
  • to speed up network performance by filtering priority packets
  • to preserve bandwidth by providing a mechanism for traffic flow control*
  • to decide which packets are forwarded or blocked at the router console port
  • to screen certain hosts to either allow or deny access to part of a network*
  • to allow all packets passing through the router access to all parts of the network

11 Which of the following parameters can ACLs use to filter traffic? (Choose three.)
  • packet size
  • protocol suite*
  • source address*
  • destination address*
  • source router interface
  • destination router interface

12 Which statement is true regarding wildcard masks?
  • The wildcard mask and subnet mask perform the same function.
  • The wildcard mask is always the inverse of the subnet mask.
  • A "0" in the wildcard mask identifies IP address bits that must be checked.*
  • A "1" in the wildcard mask identifies a network or subnet bit.

13 Select the statements that describe ACL processing of packets. (Choose three.)
  • An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACL statement.*
  • A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the statement that is matched.*
  • A packet that has been denied by one statement can be permitted by a subsequent statement.
  • A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACL statements will be forwarded by default.
  • Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACL statement list.*
  • Each packet is compared to the conditions of every statement in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.

14 An access list has been created that will deny the host 204.204.7.89 access to an ftp server located at 196.6.13.254.
access-list 111 deny tcp 204.204.7.89 0.0.0.0 196.6.13.254 0.0.0.0 eq 21
access-list 111 permit tcp any any
Which of the following groups of commands will place this ACL in the proper location?
  1. Router2(config)# interface s0/0
  2. Router2(config-if)# ip access-group 111 in
  3. Router2(config)# interface fa0/0
  4. Router2(config-if)# ip access-group 111 out
  5. Router2(config)# interface fa0/0*
  6. Router2(config-if)# ip access-group 111 in
  7. Router3(config)# interface fa0/0
  8. Router3(config-if)# ip access-group 111 in
  9. Router3(config)# interface s0/1
  10. Router3(config-if)# ip access-group 111 out
  11. Router3(config)# interface fa0/0
  12. Router3(config-if)# ip access-group 111 out

15 Choose the commands that will correctly configure a standard ACL. (Choose two.)
  • Router(config)# access-list 97 permit host 192.5.5.1*
  • Router(config)# access-list 32 permit 210.93.105.3 0.0.0.0*
  • Router(config)# access-list 148 permit 201.100.11.2 0.0.0.0
  • Router(config)# access-list 107 permit host 192.5.5.1 213.45.27.0 0.0.0.255 eq 23
  • Router(config)# access-list 10 permit tcp 192.5.5.1 0.0.0.255 201.100.11.0 0.0.0.255 eq 80

16 Assuming the ACL in the graphic is correctly applied to an interface, what effect will this ACL have on network traffic?
  • Host 192.168.15.4 will be denied ftp access to any destination, but will be permitted all other access.*
  • All ftp traffic to host 192.168.15.4 will be denied.
  • All traffic from that interface will be denied.
  • No traffic will be denied because a "permit" statement does not exist in this ACL.

17 Create an access list that will prevent only the host 192.5.5.148 from accessing a web site located at 210.93.105.50.
  • access-list 10 deny tcp host 192.5.5.148 host 210.93.105.50 eq 80
  • access-list 10 permit tcp any any
  • access-list 10 deny tcp 192.5.5.148 0.0.0.0 210.93.105.50 0.0.0.0 eq 23
  • access-list 10 permit tcp any any
  • access-list 100 deny tcp 192.5.5.148 0.0.0.0 210.93.105.50 0.0.0.0 eq 80*
  • access-list 100 permit tcp any any
  • access-list 100 deny tcp 192.5.5.148 0.0.0.255 210.93.105.50 0.0.0.255 eq 80
  • access-list 100 permit tcp any any
  • access-list 100 deny tcp host 192.5.5.148 255.255.255.255 210.93.105.50 255.255.255.255 eq 80
  • access-list 100 permit tcp any any

18 A router that has two Ethernet interfaces and one serial interface is configured to route both IP and IPX. What is the maximum number of IP ACLs that can be configured to filter packets on this router?
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 6
  • 12*

19 Which of the following matches an ACL identification number with the correct protocol?(Choose three.)
  1. 0 - standard IP
  2. 99 - standard IP*
  3. 100 - extended IP*
  4. 210 - extended IP
  5. 678 - extended IPX
  6. 888 - standard IPX*

CCNA2-Module 10

1 A computer programmer is developing software that requires a reliable stream of data. Which protocol can be used in the software design to eliminate the need for building error detection and recovery into the application program?
  • TCP*
  • IP
  • ICMP
  • UDP
  • HTTP
2 Which of the following would an administrator do to defend against a denial of service SYN flooding attack? (Choose two.)
  • Hide the source of incoming IP addresses.
  • Decrease the connection timeout period.*
  • Synchronize all host communication.
  • Increase the connection queue size.*
  • Flood the network with false SYN requests.

3 What is the purpose of Positive Acknowledgment and Retransmission (PAR)?
  • PAR allows the presentation layer to request that data be resent in a format the destination host can process.
  • PAR provides a mechanism for the receiving device to request that all segments be retransmitted if one segment is corrupt.
  • PAR helps ensure that a number of data segments sent by one host are received by another host before additional data segments are sent.*
  • PAR is used to renegotiate the window size during the synchronization process.

4 Which of the following describe types of port numbers that can be represented in the header of TCP and UDP segments? (Choose two.)
  • connectionless
  • well-known*
  • operational
  • dynamic*
  • static

5 Why is TCP considered a connection-oriented protocol?
  • It establishes a virtual connection between hosts using a two-way handshake.
  • It uses IP to guarantee delivery of packets between hosts.
  • It requires hosts to go through a synchronization process prior to data transmission.*
  • It creates a connection that depends on application layer protocols for error detection.

6 What is the purpose of using port numbers in the transport layer?
  • to identify the segment as being either TCP or UDP
  • to provide reliability during data transport
  • to identify the interface port number used by the router when forwarding data
  • to track multiple conversations that occur between hosts*

7 What does TCP use to ensure reliable delivery of data segments?
  • upper layer protocols
  • lower layer protocols
  • sequence numbers*
  • port numbers

8 Which authority has control over the assignment of port numbers for applications?
  • IEEE
  • IANA*
  • InterNIC
  • Software Developers Association

9 Which of the following describes how TCP adds reliability to communication? (Choose two.)
  • Hosts using TCP set up virtual circuits at the beginning of the transmission using the three-way handshake.*
  • Hosts using TCP set the error-checking frequency at the beginning of the transmission and maintain this frequency for the duration.
  • The receiving host acknowledges that it has received the expected number of segments and requests additional data.*
  • The receiving host acknowledges any incorrectly received data and requests retransmission of damaged or missing bytes.

10 Which address is dynamically assigned by the source host when forwarding data?
  • destination IP address
  • destination port number
  • default gateway address
  • source IP address
  • source port number*

11 Which of the following are functions of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)
  • translation of data
  • synchronization*
  • path determination
  • flow control*
  • data representation
  • reliability*

12 Which transport layer unit of information places the port number in the header?
  • data
  • segment*
  • packet
  • frame
  • bit

13 What is the purpose of the three-way handshake that occurs between hosts using TCP as the transport layer protocol?
  • to determine the number of packets that can be sent before an acknowledgment is required
  • to allow a host to forward data to a router
  • to establish a round trip connection between sender and receiver before data is transferred*
  • to provide a mechanism for data encryption and compression

14 At which point in the transmission process are segments numbered?
  • when received
  • when reassembling
  • before transmission*
  • while negotiating window size

15 What type of segment and data is shown in the graphic?
  • a UDP segment carrying e-mail traffic
  • a TCP segment carrying FTP traffic
  • an IP segment carrying FTP traffic
  • a UDP segment carrying web traffic
  • a TCP segment carrying web traffic*
  • an IP segment carrying e-mail traffic

16 When a host receives a data segment, what allows the host to determine which application should receive the segment?
  • IP source address
  • IP destination address
  • PAR
  • sliding window
  • port number*
  • SYN packet

17 Which statement is true regarding the TCP protocol?
  • Flow control at the transport layer is provided by adding a sequence number to each segment.
  • A sliding window allows for communicating devices to negotiate the amount of unacknowledged data that can be sent.*
  • A window size of 1 would require a receiving device to send ACK 1 after the Segment 1 has been received.
  • TCP is used by sending hosts to segment large data files prior to transmission while IP is used by receiving host to reassemble the smaller segments.

18 What is used by both TCP and UDP when creating a segment?
  • IP address
  • MAC address
  • IPX address
  • socket or port number*
  • acknowledgment number
  • sequence number

19 What is used by UDP to determine if the data or header has been transferred without corruption?
  • lower layer protocols
  • checksum*
  • PAR
  • sliding window
  • acknowledgment and retransmission
  • IP

20 How are originating source port numbers assigned during the data encapsulation process?
  • assigned manually by the user when starting the application
  • assigned dynamically by the source host*
  • assigned by the routing protocol during the lookup process
  • assigned by the destination host during session negotiation

21 Which of the following protocols uses UDP for transport layer services?
  • SMTP
  • HTTP
  • DNS*
  • FTP

22 Which of the following determines the amount of data that can be sent without an acknowledgment when sending a TCP segment?
  • segment number
  • priority number
  • window size*
  • value in the length field
  • value in the port field
  • acknowledgment number

23 During the encapsulation process, in which order are the IP address, MAC address, and port number assigned when the router is establishing communication with the TFTP server?
  • IP address, MAC address, port number
  • MAC address, IP address, port number
  • port number, IP address, MAC address*
  • port number, MAC address, IP address

24 Which of the following describes a type of denial of service attack designed to exploit the normal function of the TCP three-way handshake?
A host sends a packet with a spoofed source IP address.*
A host sends a packet with an incorrect destination IP address.
A source sends a packet containing a garbled header.
A host sends an oversized packet that fills the memory buffers of the destination host.
A host sends a packet that contains a virus.
A host sends a packet that contains a worm.

CCNA2-Module 9

1 Which ICMP message type notifies source hosts that a receiving host or network is not available?
  • time exceeded
  • redirect
  • destination unreachable*
  • source quench
  • parameter problem
  • echo reply

2 Which two are true regarding the debug commands? (Choose two.)
  • Debug commands may be issued from the user EXEC prompt.
  • The command undebug all will turn off all debug operations.*
  • By default, the router sends the debug output and messages to the telnet session.
  • The high processor overhead incurred using debug may disrupt normal router operation.*
  • The debug all command provides a summary view of router activity and can be used frequently for troubleshooting.
  • The show debugging command will display current events such as traffic on an interface and error messages generated by nodes on the network.

3 Which of the following commands can be used to statically configure default routes? (Choose two.)
  • ip static-route
  • *** ip route
  • ip network-route
  • *** ip default-network
  • ip default-static

4 At which OSI layer does the routing of email packets from the source network to the destination network occur?
  • application
  • session
  • transport
  • *** network

5 When issuing the show interfaces serial1 command, a network administrator receives the output shown in the graphic. What are the possible causes of an increase in the number of input errors? (Choose three.)
  • There could be Layer 3 addressing problems.
  • *** There could be a problem with faulty telephone equipment.
  • *** The router hardware could be defective.
  • There is an incorrectly configured encapsulation on the interface.
  • *** There could be a problem with the cabling.

6 Which two are true regarding the output shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
  • Network 192.168.44.0 is 610 routers away from the source router.
  • *** A packet destined for host 192.168.80.24 will be forwarded out the Serial0 interface.
  • The subnet mask for the networks is 255.255.255.240.
  • *** The router is receiving IGRP updates through its serial interface.
  • This router is using three different routing protocols.

7 The show interfaces command provides line and protocol status information. Which of the following conditions would never occur in the output of this command?
  • serial1 is up, line protocol is up
  • serial1 is up, line protocol is down
  • serial1 is down, line protocol is down
  • *** serial1 is down, line protocol is up
  • serial1 is administratively down, line protocol is down

8 After issuing the command traceroute 192.168.4.2 from Router A, the following information is returned.
  • Tracing the route to Router_D (192.168.4.2)
  • 1 Router_B (192.168.2.2) 16 msec 16 msec 16 msec
  • 2 * * *
  • 3 * * *
  • What can be concluded about the network shown in the graphic based on the output given?
  • Network 192.168.5.0 is missing from the routing table on Router A.
  • *** There is a problem with the connection between Router B and Router C.
  • Router C is not running CDP.
  • Some of the routers are non-Cisco devices.
  • Router B was not able to return ICMP TEMs to Router A.

9 During the lookup process when forwarding a packet, a router checks its routing table for the best path to the destination. If a route has an administrative distance of 0, what does this indicate to the router?
  • The packet should be discarded.
  • The destination is unreachable.
  • *** The destination is a directly connected network.
  • The source of the update for that route is unreliable.

10 Which of the following would be the default administrative distance of a static IP route that references the IP address of the next hop?
  • 0
  • *** 1
  • 5
  • 20

11 Which items would be displayed when the show ip protocol command is executed? (Choose three.)
  • *** sources of routing updates
  • *** networks being advertised
  • routing protocol up or down
  • configured routed protocols
  • Layer 2 status of the interface
  • *** update timer values

12 A network administrator suspects that a network is not being included in the routing updates. Which command will provide information on when the next update is due and which networks are advertised in the update?
  • Router# show interfaces
  • Router# show controllers serial
  • *** Router# show ip protocols
  • Router# show ip route
  • Router# show running-config

13 Which of the following lines from the show interfaces output would indicate a Layer 2 problem?
  • Serial1 is up, line protocol is up.
  • *** Serial1 is up, line protocol is down.
  • Serial1 is down, line protocol is down.
  • Serial1 is administratively down, line protocol is down.

14 After issuing the show interfaces command, a technician notices the line "Serial1 is down, line protocol is down" in the output. Which of the following are possible reasons for this message output? (Choose three.)
  • There is a mismatch in the encapsulation type on both ends of the link.
  • *** A Layer 1 issue exists.
  • *** An interface problem exists.
  • The clockrate was not set during configuration.
  • *** There is no usable media for the protocol.
  • Keepalive messages are not being sent.

15 Refer to the network graphic. A packet needs to travel from Router F to Router A. Which path would be selected by the RIP routing protocol if the default metrics are used?
  • F, G, E, D, B, A
  • F, E, D, C, A
  • *** F, E, D, A
  • F, E, D, B, A

16 Which command will verify the functionality of all seven layers of the OSI model on a network host?
  • ping
  • *** telnet
  • tracert
  • debug

17 Why does a router build a routing table? (Choose two.)
  • *** to list available routes for forwarding data
  • to map local Layer 2 addresses to the remote Layer 3 destination address
  • to dynamically send periodic updates regarding the router's status
  • to prevent routing loops when redundant links are added to the network
  • *** to select the best path to a destination

18 Which of the following are advantages of using a static route? (Choose three.)
  • *** secure operation
  • highly adaptable
  • low maintenance configuration
  • *** low processor overhead
  • *** precise control of path selection

19 After issuing the show interfaces serial1 command, an administrator notices an increasing number of carrier transitions. What are the possible causes for this increase? (Choose two.)
  • There is an incorrect encapsulation configured on the interface.
  • *** There could be an interruption in the line by the service provider.
  • *** There is a faulty switch or CSU/DSU.
  • There is noise on the serial line.

20 Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and subnetworks?
  • Router# show ip interfaces
  • Router# show ip connections
  • *** Router# show ip route
  • Router# show ip networks

21 Consider the RIP network shown in the diagram. Which entries would be listed in the routing table of Router A?
  • R 192.168.5.2[120/1] via 192.168.15.0, 00:00:09, Serial0
  • R 192.168.15.0[120/1] via 192.168.5.2, 00:00:13, Serial1
  • *** R 192.168.15.0[120/1] via 192.168.5.1, 00:00:13, Serial0
  • R 192.158.5.1 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2 00:00:29, Serial1
  • R 192.168.15.0 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2, 00:00:29, Serial1
  • R 192.158.5.1 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2 00:00:18, Serial0
  • R 192.168.15.2 [120/1] via 192.168.5.2, 00:00:18, Serial

22 The network administrator shown in the graphic can ping the E0 interface of the HAR router, but the telnet intranet.xyz.com command issued from her workstation fails to open a session with the intranet.xyz.com server. Which of the following could cause this problem? (Choose two.)
  • *** upper-layer application problems
  • *** domain name system problems
  • IP debugging problems
  • IP routing problems
  • ICMP connectivity problems

23 Refer to the network and routing table entries shown in the graphic. What will happen when a packet destined for network 192.66.7.0 is received by Router A?
  • It will be forwarded through interface S1.
  • It will be forwarded to the default route.
  • It will be directed toward the Internet.
  • *** It will be discarded.


24 Which three correctly pair a routing metric with its description? (Choose three.)
  • hop count - the number of routers traversed to reach a destination
  • *bandwidth - the amount of time it takes a packet to travel a link
  • *load - the amount of activity on a link
  • *delay - the link speed
  • reliability - the error rate on a link

25 When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in the output?
  • D, SWH-2
  • A, B, D
  • SWH-1, SWH-2
  • *B, D
  • SWH-1, A, B
  • A, B, D, SWH-1, SWH-2

26 A network technician has discovered that a router in the network can no longer be reached. The technician attempts to verify Layer 1 functionality, but is unable to physically inspect the cables. Which command can be used to determine the type of cable connected to the router?
  • Router# show interfaces
  • *Router# show controllers serial
  • Router# show ip route
  • Router# show ip protocol
  • Router# show version
  • Router# show running-config

27 The network administrator is using a PC to access a router via the router console port. Both the PC and the router are powered on and a cable has been connected between them. However, a session cannot be established. Which steps might fix this problem? (Choose two.)
  • **Verify the cable is properly connected at each end.
  • Reseat the network card in the PC.
  • **Verify the cable is the correct type.
  • Verify that a password has been set on the console line.
  • Check the transceiver for link lights.
  • Reseat the console card on the router.

28 Which of the following is a problem at the physical layer of the OSI model?
  • incorrect file formatting
  • incorrect encapsulation on a serial interface
  • incorrect routing protocol
  • incorrect cable type*

CCNA2-Module 8

1 Which two statements are true regarding ICMP? (Choose two.)
  • ICMP provides reliability for the TCP/IP protocol stack.
  • ICMP is a component of the TCP/IP protocol stack.*
  • ICMP notifies the sender that data transmission errors have occurred.*
  • ICMP is connection-oriented.
  • ICMP messages are propagated to all intermediate devices.

2 Workstation 1 sent a data packet to Workstation 4. It never arrived because Fa0/0 interface went down on Router C. How will the devices handle this failure?
  • Workstation 4 will send an error message to Router C and Workstation 1 that it did not receive the packet.
  • Router C will use ICMP to send a message back to Workstation 1 indicating that the packet could not be delivered.*
  • Router C discards the packet without providing notification to any device.
  • Router C uses ICMP to correct the failure and transmits the data to Workstation 4.
  • Workstation 1 will use ICMP to correct the problem and then notify Router C to continue the transmission.

3 Which type of message is generated by a host when the ping command is entered?
  • ICMP echo request*
  • ICMP echo reply
  • UDP echo request
  • UDP error message

4 which devices along a data transmission path are notified by ICMP when delivery failures occur?
  • source devices only*
  • destination devices only
  • intermediary devices
  • source and destination devices
  • source, intermediary, and destination devices

5 Which of the following start the test of destination reachability?
  • echo request issued by source*
  • echo reply issued by source
  • echo request issued by destination
  • echo reply issued by destination

6 How does ICMP improve data transfer reliability in IP networks?
  • Each router in the path reads ICMP packets and uses the information to update routing tables.
  • ICMP can correct many network problems as they occur.
  • ICMP error messages are returned to the sending device when a packet is dropped by a router.*
  • ICMP packets report the intermediary devices that a packet passed through before failure occurred.

7 Which three conditions must be met in order for host to host communication over an internetwork to occur on IP networks? (Choose three.)
  • The routing protocols configured on the source and destination networks must be the same.
  • A default gateway must be properly configured on the hosts and local networks.*
  • Intermediary devices, such as routers, must be present on the network and have knowledge of how to reach the destination network.*
  • The source and destination host subnet masks must match.
  • The IP addresses of the hosts must be in the same network or subnet as their respective gateway devices.*

8 Which layer protocols provide reliability for IP when needed?
  • ICMP and ping
  • RIP and TTL
  • upper layer protocols*
  • lower layer protocols
  • Internet layer protocols
  • network access layer protocols

9 Which condition could cause a fragmentation needed ICMP destination unreachable message to be sent?
  • A low bandwidth WAN link has become congested with IP traffic.
  • A packet is forwarded from a Token Ring network to an Ethernet network.*
  • A network is not reachable because of faulty routing information.
  • The address specified by the sending host is nonexistent.

10 How does a source host use ICMP to confirm that a destination host is reachable?
  • The source host sends an ICMP echo request to the destination router which responds with an ICMP echo reply confirming the reachability of the destination host.
  • The source host sends a data packet and receives an ICMP host unreachable packet from the destination host if the data packet cannot be delivered.
  • The source host sends an ICMP packet with a TTL value of 1 and receives an ICMP reply with a TTL value of 0 from the destination host.
  • The source host sends an ICMP echo request and receives an ICMP echo reply from the destination host.*

11 When a datagram is processed by a router on the path from source to destination, what happens to the value in the TTL field?"
  • It is increased by one.
  • It is decreased by one.*
  • It stays the same.
  • It is reset to 0.
  • Nothing.

CCNA2-Module 7

1 The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command:
192.168.3.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
What is the administrative distance of the enabled routing protocol?
  • 2
  • 30
  • 100
  • 120*

2 A router has routes to several subnets of a classful network in its routing table. A default route is defined on the router but the ip classless command is disabled. If the router receives packets for a subnet that is not in its routing table but is in the same classful network as the other subnets, what will happen to the packets?
  • The packets will be forwarded using the default route.
  • The packets will be forwarded using a route to one of the other subnets of the classful network.
  • A nonreachable message will be returned to the source.
  • The packets will be discarded.*
  • The router will generate a new route to the subnetted network.

3 When does RIP send routing table updates? (Choose two.)
  • periodically, every 30 seconds*
  • periodically, every 60 seconds
  • periodically, every 90 seconds
  • if optionally configured, when topology changes occur (triggered-update)

4 Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
  • debug ip rip*
  • show ip route
  • show ip interface
  • show ip protocols
  • debug ip rip config
  • show ip rip database

5 which of the following would be the correct command sequence to enable RIP on Router B for all connected networks?
  • RouterB# router rip
  • RouterB(router)# network 210.36.7.0
  • RouterB(router)# network 220.17.29.0
  • RouterB(router)# network 211.168.74.0
  • RouterB(config)# router rip
  • RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
  • RouterB(config-router)# network 211.168.74.0
  • RouterB(config-router)# network 199.84.32.0
  • RouterB(config)# configure router rip
  • RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
  • RouterB(config-router)# network 199.84.32.0
  • RouterB(config-router)# network 211.168.74.0
  • RouterB(config)# router rip
  • RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
  • RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
  • RouterB(config-router)# network 211.168.74.0
  • RouterB(config)# router rip*
  • RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
  • RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
  • RouterB(config-router)# network 220.17.29.0

6 Which statements describe load balancing when RIP is configured as the routing protocol? (Choose two.)
  • A router is allowed to take advantage of multiple best paths to a given destination.*
  • RIP uses the round robin approach in load balancing.*
  • RIP load balancing selects a single path to forward all data to the destination even though equal parallel paths exist.
  • RIP load balancing is based on bandwidth first and then the hop count.
  • Only one path to a destination can be statically assigned or dynamically calculated.

7 If the passive interface command is enabled on the fa0/0 interface of Router E, which statements are true? (Choose two.)
  • Router E will send all routing updates via interface fa0/0.
  • Router E will ignore all routing updates learned via interface fa0/0.
  • Router E will use routing updates learned via interface fa0/0.*
  • Router E will not send routing updates via interface fa0/0.*

8 What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
  • The route is removed from the table.*
  • The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.
  • The route remains in the table because it was defined as static.
  • The router redirects the static route to compensate for the loss of the next hop device.

9 Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process?
  • RouterB(config)# router rip
  • RouterB(config-router)# shutdown
  • RouterB(config)# router rip
  • RouterB(config-router)# network no 192.168.2.0
  • RouterB(config)# no router rip*
  • RouterB(config)# router no rip

10 Refer to the exhibit. Assuming default settings are configured, which routing protocol has been configured on the router?
  • OSPF
  • RIP*
  • EIGRP
  • BGP
  • static

11 When does a distance vector routing protocol set a hold-down timer on a route?
  • when the metric value of the route decreases
  • when the route is marked as inaccessible*
  • when the metric value for the route improves
  • when a regular update is received from a neighboring router

12 The administrator of the network depicted in the graphic would like to decrease the network's convergence time. How can this be accomplished?
  • disable split horizon on the routers
  • increase the update interval on the routers
  • change the RIP holddown timer to 96 seconds*
  • change the RIP holddown timer to 226 seconds

13 How would an administrator configure a static route for use if a primary route failed?
  • configure the route with a metric greater than the default value
  • configure the route and the router will activate it as needed
  • configure the route to activate by using the redistribute static command
  • configure the route with an administrative distance greater than the default value *

14 When a routing table update is received by a router in a distance vector network, which of the following occurs?
  • The hop count metrics for the enclosed routes are incremented.*
  • The update is forwarded to the gateway router for verification.
  • Path entries are checked for routing loops.
  • The hop count metrics for the enclosed routes are decremented.
  • Static routes are updated with the new information.

15 What do distance vector algorithms require each router in the network to send?
  • a partial routing table to each router in the LAN
  • a partial routing table to each router in the WAN
  • the entire routing table to each neighboring router*
  • the entire routing table to each router in the autonomous system

16 Which statements describe RIP? (Choose three.)
  • The maximum metric value is 255 hops.*
  • The maximum metric value is 15 hops.*
  • Routing updates occur every 30 seconds.
  • Routing updates occur every 90 seconds.*
  • It is a distance vector routing protocol.
  • It is a link state routing protocol.

17 Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?
  • Routing updates are split in half to reduce the update time.
  • Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.*
  • New route information must be learned from multiple sources to be accepted.
  • The time between updates is split in half to speed convergence.
  • New route information is suppressed until the system has converged.

18 What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)
  • RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA.*
  • During the next update interval, RouterB will send a RIP update out both ports that includes the inaccessible network.
  • During the next update interval, RouterC will send an update to RouterB stating that network 114.125.16.0 is accessible in 2 hops.
  • Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB.*
  • RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterC.

19 According to the router output from the show ip route command shown above, which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)
  • The metric to network 192.168.8.0 is 24.
  • The hop count to a device on network 192.168.8.0 is 2.*
  • The total path cost to network 192.168.4.0 is the default value of 16.
  • The logical address of the next router for network 192.168.1.0 is 192.168.3.1.*
  • The devices on network 192.168.5.0 cannot be reached as indicated by the 'C' label.

20 The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?
  • split horizon
  • error condition
  • hold-down timer
  • route poisoning*
  • count to infinity

21 Which of the following functions are performed by a router as routing information travels through the network? (Choose two.)
  • advertise supported applications
  • identify new destinations*
  • calculate packet speed
  • verify network scalability
  • identify invalid networks*

22 Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose three.)
  • routing loops*
  • inconsistent traffic forwarding*
  • no traffic forwarding until system converges
  • inconsistent routing table entries
  • routing table updates sent to wrong destinations

CCNA2-Module 6

1 Why is it necessary to specify a list of networks when configuring an interior routing protocol?
  • to tell the router how to reach those networks
  • to tell the router which attached networks participate in routing updates*
  • to tell the router which set of metrics to use for the attached networks
  • to tell the router which routing protocol to use

2 Which is an exterior routing protocol commonly used between ISPs?
  • RIP
  • BGP*
  • OSPF
  • EIGRP

3 Assuming that the network shown in the graphic is converged and dynamic routing is enabled, which of the following conditions will cause a modification to the Orlando routing table? (Choose two.)
  • The device connecting the S0 interface of the Tampa router to the serial link loses power.*
  • A network administrator shuts down the Orlando router E0 interface.*
  • A DCHP server connected to the Tampa E1 network loses power.
  • The IP address of a workstation on the Orlando E0 network is reassigned.
  • A host on the Orlando E1 network transmits data to a server on the Tampa E1 network.
  • A Telnet connection to the Orlando router fails.

4 Describe the switching function that occurs in a router.
  • allows the router to make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addressing
  • uses network addressing to select the best route and interface to forward data
  • accepts a packet on one interface and forwards it to a second interface*
  • enables the router to select the most appropriate interface for forwarding a packet

5 Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
  • Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.
  • Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.
  • Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.*
  • Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.

6 Which are the primary functions used by a router when forwarding data?(Choose two.)
  • data encryption
  • error notification
  • packet switching*
  • address identification
  • path determination*
  • packet validation

7 All routers at a medium sized company have been upgraded. During the upgrade, the network administrator determined that a more advanced routing protocol using a combination of both distance vector and link state features should be implemented. Which protocol should be selected?
  • RIP
  • BGP
  • OSPF
  • EIGRP*

8 Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged?
  • The routers in the network are operating with dynamic routing protocols.
  • The routers in the network are operating with compatible versions of IOS.
  • The routers in the network are operating with the same routing tables.
  • The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.*

9 What can be concluded about the routing process on a router if the commands router rip and network 192.5.5.0 have been issued? (Choose three.)
  • A distance vector routing protocol was used.*
  • A link-state routing protocol was used.
  • Routing updates will broadcast every 30 seconds.*
  • Routing updates will broadcast every 90 seconds.
  • Hop count is the metric used for route selection.*
  • Bandwidth, load, delay, and reliability are the metrics used for route selection.

10 What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
  • It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.
  • It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.
  • It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.
  • It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.*
  • It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.

11 Given the command, RouterC(config)# ip route 197.5.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.10.1.1, what does the address 192.10.1.1 represent?
  • the source host
  • the next hop router*
  • the outbound interface
  • the destination network

12 Which two protocols use an addressing scheme to direct user traffic? (Choose two.)
  • IP*
  • EIGRP
  • IPX
  • OSPF
  • RIP

13 Which category of routing algorithms discovers and maintains a topological map of the entire internetwork?
  • static
  • Bellman-Ford
  • exterior gateway
  • Internetwork Packet Exchange
  • distance vector
  • link-state*

14 Which two statements describe autonomous systems? (Choose two.)
  • Interior gateway protocols are used between autonomous systems.
  • Exterior gateway protocols are used between autonomous systems.*
  • An autonomous system may be under the control of multiple organizations.
  • An autonomous system is identified by a 16 bit number assigned by ARIN.*
  • The autonomous system is identified in the network portion of the IP address.

15 Which type of address does a router use to make routing decisions?
  • source IP address
  • source MAC address
  • destination IP address*
  • destination MAC address

16 Referring to the diagram, which commands will enable hosts on the Idaho E0 network to reach hosts on the E0 network of the Montana router? (Choose two.)
  • Montana(config)# ip route 172.31.5.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.5.1
  • Montana(config)# ip route 172.31.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.1*
  • Idaho(config)# ip route 172.31.5.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.1
  • Idaho(config)# ip route 172.31.5.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.2*
  • Idaho(config)# ip route 172.31.5.1 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.1

17
Select the statements that describe link-state routing processes? (Choose three.)
  • Each router develops its own map of the entire network.*
  • Routers send triggered updates when changes in the network occur.*
  • Link-state routing protocols place a higher load on router resources during the routing protocol initialization.*
  • Link-state protocols are more prone to routing loops than distance vector routing protocols.
  • Networks using link-state routing protocols are slower to reach convergence after changes have occurred than those using distance vector protocols.

18 Which of the following are valid static IP routes? (Choose three.)
  • RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.0 S1
  • RouterC(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 S1*
  • RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.2*
  • RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.2
  • RouterC(config)# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.1*
  • RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.1

19 Which of the following statements are true regarding the command ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.1? (Choose three.)
  • This command is used to set up a static route.*
  • This command is used to set up a default route.
  • This command is entered from global configuration mode.*
  • All packets intended for network 172.16.1.0 will be sent to gateway 172.16.2.1.*
  • All packets intended for network 172.16.2.1 will be sent to gateway 172.16.1.0.


20 If dynamic routing is not configured on a router, how do routing table updates occur?
  • Link state advertisements are sent from other routers.
  • Updates are made to the routing table by the administrator.*
  • Best path information is communicated by network hosts.
  • The routing table is updated by neighboring routers.

21 How does a router learn about routes to a network? (Choose three.)
  • Information is gathered from its own configuration regarding directly connected networks.*
  • Switches forward destination address information to each router.
  • Hosts communicate destination network information to each router.
  • Other routers forward information about known networks.*
  • Routes are entered manually by a network administrator.*
  • Routes are learned from information gathered from ARP tables.

22 What are some of the advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
  • The topology database eliminates the need for a routing table.
  • Frequent periodic updates are sent to minimize the number of incorrect routes in the topological database.
  • Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.*
  • After the inital LSA flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.*
  • Link-state protocols require less router processor power than distance vector protocols.

CCNA2-Module 5

1 Which command will copy an IOS image from a TFTP server to a router?
  • Router# copy tftp flash*
  • Router# copy flash tftp
  • Router(config)# copy tftp flash
  • Router(config)# copy flash tftp

2 Routers have different types of memory. Choose the answer that describes flash memory.
  • provides working storage
  • stores a fully functional IOS image*
  • stores the startup configuration file
  • initializes the code used to boot the router

3 The router has been configured with a valid configuration file. Which of the following could be a cause for a router not booting normally? (Choose two.)
  • The flash image is corrupt.*
  • A console cable is disconnected.
  • The flash image is located in NVRAM.
  • The startup configuration file is incomplete.*
  • The router encountered a hardware error.

4 Which command will backup configuration files from RAM to NVRAM or a TFTP server?
  • backup
  • copy
  • telnet*
  • move

5 Which command is used to change the order in which the router looks for system bootstrap information?
  • config-image
  • config-system
  • config-register*
  • config-bootfield
  • config system bootstrap

6 What does a configuration register setting of 0x2102 indicate on a router?
  • It tells the router to locate and load the IOS from NVRAM.
  • It tells the router to locate and load the IOS from FLASH.
  • It tells the router to bypass the configuration in NVRAM.
  • It tells the router to look in the startup configuration for boot system commands.*

7 Which command will display the source of the system boot image?
  • Router# show version
  • Router# show config-register
  • Router# show start-up config
  • Router# show running-config
  • Router# show flash

8 Which part of the configuration register indicates the location of the IOS?
  • the bootstrap
  • the boot field*
  • the IOS locator
  • the system image loader

9 Which of the following are steps in saving a router configuration file to a TFTP server? (Choose three.)
  • Enter configuration mode.
  • Enter the IP address to the TFTP server.*
  • Use the copy running-config tftp command.*
  • Use the copy tftp running-config command.
  • Name the configuration file or accept the default name.*

10 The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)
  • The "mz" in the filename represents the special capabilities and features of the IOS.
  • The file is uncompressed and requires 2.6 MB of RAM to run.
  • The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.*
  • The file is downloadable and 121.4MB in size.
  • The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.*

11 What command can be used in ROM monitor mode to run the IOS image in flash?
  • rommon1> config-register 0x2102
  • rommon1> boot flash:filename*
  • rommon1> xmodem:filename
  • rommon1> boot system flash:filename
  • rommon1> reload system flash:

12 Which two items below are required by routers in order for them to perform their basic operations? (Choose two.)
  • a tftp server*
  • a configuration file
  • a configuration register file*
  • an operating system file
  • a DNS table

13 Where does a router look for boot system statements?
  • ROM
  • RAM
  • NVRAM*
  • Flash

14 Routers have different types of memory. Choose the answer that describes NVRAM.
  • provides working storage
  • stores a fully functional IOS image
  • stores the startup configuration file*
  • initializes the code that is used to boot the router
15 If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?
  • The startup sequence will reset.
  • The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.*
  • The startup sequence will halt until a valid configuration file is acquired.
  • The router will generate a default configuration file based on the last valid configuration.
  • The router will monitor local traffic to determine routing protocol configuration requirements.

16 If the configuration register instructs a router to look for configuration information in NVRAM and no boot system commands exist there, from where will the router next attempt to boot the IOS?
  • RAMR
  • ROM
  • FLASH*
  • EPROM
  • ROMMON

17 Which of the following can be configured as a source for the IOS image by using the boot system command? (Choose two.)
  • TFTP server*
  • HTTP server
  • Telnet server
  • Flash memory*
  • NVRAM memory

18 If boot system commands have been configured, which of the following could happen if a router fails to obtain an IOS image from the primary sources during bootup?
The router will l
  • oad a subset of a full IOS version from system ROM.
  • The router will attempt to reboot two times before failing.
  • The router will load the last good IOS image from NVRAM.*
  • The administrator will be prompted to load a valid IOS image.

19 An IOS image can be copied into flash from a TFTP server. Which of the following statements are true regarding this process? (Choose three.)
  • A series of "!'s" are displayed as the image is downloaded successfully to flash.*
  • The copy tftp flash:filename ip address command is used to copy the IOS from the server to flash.
  • After the new flash image is downloaded, it is verified.*
  • A series of "e's" are displayed as the current IOS image is erased from flash.*
  • Flash must be cleared with the erase command prior to beginning the download process.

CCNA2-Module 4

1 To obtain CDP information from a Cisco router that is not directly connected to the administrator's console, what must happen?
  • The source router must send TLV blocks to the remote router.
  • The administrator can Telnet to a Cisco device that is connected to the remote router.*
  • The administrator needs to issue the Router# show cdp all to view the entire network CDP advertisements.
  • The administrator must transmit TTL packets to the remote device and wait for a response.

2 Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
  • load
  • platform*
  • reliability
  • holdtime*
  • local interface*

3 What command enables CDP on the interface of a router?
  • Router(config-if)# cdp enable*
  • Router(config-if)# cdp run
  • Router(config-if)# cdp start
  • Router(config-if)# cdp config

4 The traceroute command was used to trace the path between routers A and D. What would an output display of three asterisks (***) indicate?
  • The command was issued from the wrong prompt.
  • Each datagram was successfully sent.
  • One of the routers is unreachable.*
  • There are three hops between source and destination.

5 What is the purpose of the cdp timer command?
  • specifies the hold time to be sent in the CDP update packet
  • resets the traffic counters back to zero
  • specifies how often the Cisco IOS software sends CDP updates*
  • deletes and resets the CDP table of information about neighbors

6 An administrator is attempting to enable CDP on the interface of a Cisco router. After issuing the command Router(config-if)# cdp enable, the router responds with an error stating that CDP is not active. What might be the problem?
  • The cdp enable command must be issued from the global mode prompt.
  • The administrator needed to issue the command Router(config-if)# cdp run.
  • CDP has not been configured globally.*
  • The administrator did not manually enter the CDP neighbors into the CDP table.

7 For which three network layer protocols does CDP provide information? (Choose three.)
  • IP*
  • RIP
  • SNMP
  • AppleTalk*
  • IPX*
  • EIGRP

8 Pings between Atlanta and Dallas are successful. If a hostname table or DNS connection is not available, which command will successfully establish a remote connection from Atlanta to Dallas via Telnet?
  • Atlanta> connect Dallas
  • Atlanta> 197.72.3.2*
  • Atlanta# 206.157.85.1
  • Atlanta# telnet Dallas

9 If the network administrator establishes a telnet session from Workstation 2 to GAD and then from GAD to BHM, what occurs if the session with BHM is suspended and the Enter key is pressed?
  • The GAD session will be resumed.
  • The BHM session will be resumed.
  • The GAD session will be terminated.
  • The BHM session will be terminated.*

10 What is the main use of Telnet?
  • transfer of data between end users
  • verification of simple connectivity
  • routing of data packets
  • remote connection to network devices*

11 A network administrator was called away from the terminal while using Telnet to monitor a remote router. The Telnet session was left connected. If the default Telnet configuration is used, what will the administrator find upon returning 15 minutes later?
  • The Telnet session entered a "sleep" state and will resume when the spacebar is pressed.
  • The Telnet session remained connected and is on the same screen it was left on.
  • The Telnet session suspended itself and will resume when the Enter key is pressed.
  • The Telnet session terminated itself after 10 minutes of inactivity.
  • The Telnet session remained active but now requires the password to be entered again.*

12 What key sequence is used to suspend a Telnet session on a remote router?
  • Ctrl-Shift-S
  • Ctrl-Shift-6
  • Ctrl-Shift-6, then x
  • Ctrl-Alt-S*
  • Ctrl-Alt-6
  • Ctrl-Alt-6, then x

13 Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
  • CDP running on Router D will gather information about routers A, B, C, and E.
  • By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.*
  • If routers D and E are running different routing protocols, they will not exchange CDP information.
  • Router E can use CDP to identify the IOS running on Router B.

14 Transmitting type length values (TLVs) inside advertisements is a process used by CDP to provide information about neighboring devices. What information is displayed by these TLVs? (Choose three.)
  • interface information of the connected device*
  • all networks connected to the neighboring device
  • name of the connected device*
  • routing protocol used on the neighboring device
  • holdtime for advertisements*

15 Which command will produce the output shown in the graphic?
  • show cdp*
  • show cdp neighbors
  • show cdp neighbors detail
  • show cdp detail
  • show cdp traffic

16 How many Telnet sessions can take place simultaneously on a router running a standard edition of the IOS?
  • 4
  • 5
  • 8
  • 10

17 Why would an administrator use the Telnet application when troubleshooting a network? (Choose three.)
  • It can be used to verify the operation of application layer software between the source and destination.
  • Telnet can use the ICMP protocol to verify a hardware connection and network layer address.
  • It is the most complete testing mechanism available.
  • Remote networks may be accessed via a Telnet session for troubleshooting.
  • Time to Live values are used by Telnet to identify a failure of device between source and destination.

18 How can a network administrator logged in to RTA gather information about the Cisco devices that are directly connected to its neighbor, RTB?
  • Use the show cdp neighbors detail command on RTA to view information about every device on the entire internetwork.
  • Use ping to determine the status of RTB, then issue the show cdp neighbors detail command.
  • Use Telnet to connect to RTB, then issue the show cdp neighbors command.
  • Use traceroute to establish the pathway to RTB, then issue the show cdp neighbors command

CCNA2-Module 3

1 Which command sequence will permit access to all five router virtual terminal lines with a password of cisco?
  • Router(config-line)#config telnet
  • Router(config-line)# line vty 0 5
  • Router(config-line)# password cisco

  • Router(config)# line vty 0 4
  • Router(config)# password cisco

  • Router(config)# line vty 0 4*
  • Router(config-line)# password cisco
  • Router(config-line)# login

  • Router(config-line)# config telnet
  • Router(config-line)# password cisco
  • Router(config-line)# sessions 0 4

2 An IP network is to be added to a router Ethernet interface. What steps must be performed to configure this interface to allow connectivity to the hosts on this LAN? (Choose two.)
  • Enter the command no shutdown. *
  • A password must be set on the interface.
  • The interface DCE clock rate must be set.
  • The interface must be configured for virtual terminal access.
  • The interface must be configured with an IP address and subnet mask. *
  • The router must be put in setup mode in order for the interface to be configured.

3 What is the default state of the interfaces on a router?
  • up, line protocol down
  • down, line protocol down *
  • adminstratively down, line protocol down
  • up, line protocol up

4 Which commands display information about the IOS or configuration files stored in router memory? (Choose three.)
  • Router# show ram
  • Router# show flash *
  • Router# show hosts
  • Router# show history
  • Router# show version *
  • Router# show startup-config *

5 Select the interface descriptions that provide the most appropriate information. (Choose two.)
  • circuit number
  • host IP address *
  • telnet password *
  • number of hops between routers
  • purpose and location of the interface

6 Select the commands necessary to remove any existing configuration on a router. (Choose two.)
  • delete flash
  • erase startup-config *
  • erase running-config *
  • restart
  • reload
  • delete NVRAM

7 Router names are associated with IP addresses. What is the name of the table that is created by this association?
  • IP table
  • SAP table
  • ARP table
  • MAC table
  • HOST table *
  • RARP table

8 Select the commands that will store the current configuration file to a network TFTP server? (Choose two.)
  • Router# copy run tftp
  • Router# copy tftp run
  • Router# copy running-config tftp *
  • Router# copy tftp running-config *
  • Router(config)# copy running-config tftp
  • Router(config)# copy tftp running-config

9 Which statements are true regarding the recommended use of login banners? (Choose two.)
  • They should be used to display information regarding system changes or maintenance. *
  • They should be used to display warnings to unauthorized users. *
  • They should be used to display welcome messages prior to login.
  • They should be seen only by system administrators.
  • They should provide confirmation of incoming IP addresses.

10 What is the effect of the command ip host HQ 192.1.1.1?
  • permits a ping to 192.1.1.1 with the command ping HQ
  • assigns the description HQ to the interface with the ip address 192.1.1.1
  • renames the router as HQ
  • defines a static route to the host 192.1.1.1
  • configures the remote device HQ with the ip address of 192.1.1.1 *

11 What are the default settings for a serial interface? (Choose three.)
  • DTE *
  • DCE
  • shutdown *
  • no IP address *
  • clock rate 56000
  • encapsulation ARPA

12 What will be the response from the router after the command, "router(config)# hostname portsmouth" is entered?
  • portsmouth#
  • portsmouth(config)# *
  • invalid input detected
  • router(config-host)#
  • hostname = portsmouth
  • portsmouth#
  • ? command not recognized
  • router(config)#
13 A network administrator wants to assure that any password that permits access to the privileged EXEC mode is not shown in plain text in the configuration files. Which commands will accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
  • Router(config)#enable cisco secret
  • Router(config)#enable cisco
  • Router(config)#service password-encryption *
  • Router(config)#enable secret cisco *
  • Router(config)#encrypt-all cisco
  • Router(config)#service encryption-password

14 Why is it important to create standards for network consistency? (Choose three.)
  • reduces network complexity *
  • increases unplanned downtime
  • limits unplanned downtime *
  • increases bandwidth by regulating networking performance
  • limits events that may impact network performance *

15 A telnet session can be established when using the IP address of a router but not the name of the router. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?
  • an incorrect host table entry *
  • an incorrect ARP table entry
  • an incorrect routing table entry
  • an incorrect protocol configured
  • an incorrect subnet mask

16 The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
  • Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
  • Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown *
  • Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224 *
  • Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000 *
  • Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2

17 Which are valid router prompts? (Choose three.)
  • Router(privileged)#
  • Router(config)# *
  • Router(command)#
  • Router(config-router)# *
  • Router(config-if)# *
  • Router(exec)#

18 Select the correct sequence of commands that will configure "Engineering LAN" as the interface description on the Ethernet0 interface.

  • 1)Router# configure terminal
  • Router(config)# interface e0 description Engineering LAN
  • 2)Router# configure terminal*
  • Router(config)# interface e0
  • Router(config-if)# description Engineering LAN
  • 3)Router# configure terminal
  • Router(config)# interface e0
  • Router(config-if)# interface description Engineering LAN
  • 4)Router# configure terminal
  • Router(config)# description Engineering LAN

19 Select the recommended locations to save a running-config file. (Choose three.)
  • all network hosts
  • network server *
  • floppy disk *
  • TFTP server *
  • server that is not on the network

20 Which command turns on a router interface?
  • Router(config-if)# enable
  • Router(config-if)# no down
  • Router(config-if)# s0 active
  • Router(config-if)# interface up
  • Router(config-if)# no shutdown *

21 Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
  • VTY interface *
  • console interface *
  • Ethernet interface
  • secret EXEC mode
  • privileged EXEC mode *
  • router configuration mode

22 What must be configured to establish a serial link between two routers that are directly connected?
  • a clock rate on the DTE interface
  • a no clock rate command on the DTE interface
  • no configuration is required
  • a clock rate on the DCE interface *

CCNA2-Module 2

1 After the active IOS image has been loaded into RAM from flash memory, which commands could be used to display the file name of the active IOS? (Choose two.)
  • Router# show IOS*
  • Router# show flash
  • Router# show nvram
  • Router# show version
  • Router# show startup-config
  • Router# show running-config*

2 Which of the following identifies the correct items needed to initially configure a router?
  • 1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port
  • 2) a straight through cable
  • 3) the router's console port

  • 1) PC's Ethernet port
  • 2) a crossover cable
  • 3) the router's Ethernet port
  • 1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port
  • 2) a rollover cable
  • 3) the router's Ethernet port
  • 1) PC's Ethernet port
  • 2) a rollover cable
  • 3) the router's console port
  • 1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC's serial port*
  • 2) a rollover cable*
  • 3) the router's console port*
  • 1) PC's Ethernet port
  • 2) a rollover cable
  • 3) the router's Ethernet port

3 What does the command sh? return as output if issued at the Router# prompt?
  • all show commands allowed in privileged mode
  • all commands beginning with the letters sh*
  • an incomplete command error message
  • an invalid command error message

4 When the router output is being viewed through a terminal program, which statements are true regarding the --More-- prompt at the bottom of the router display? (Choose two.)
  • Press the Spacebar to display the next line.
  • Press the Spacebar to view the next screen.*
  • Press the PgDn key to view the next screen.
  • Press the Enter key to display the next line.*
  • Press the Enter key to view the next screen.

5 What information about the router and its startup process can be gathered from the output of the show version command? (Choose three.)
  • the last restart method*
  • the command buffer contents
  • the amount of NVRAM and FLASH used
  • the configuration register settings*
  • the location from where the IOS loaded*

6 What baud rate needs to be configured on terminal emulation software to allow a connection to the console port of a router?
  • 2400
  • 4800
  • 9600*
  • 14200
  • 38400

7 Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)
  • View a list of commands entered in a previous session.
  • Recall up to 15 command lines by default.
  • Set the command history buffer size.*
  • Recall previously entered commands.*
  • Save command lines in a log file for future reference.

8 Cisco IOS software is separated into two levels as a security feature. What are those two levels? (Choose two.)
  • global
  • privileged*
  • local
  • user*
  • interface

9 What information does the name of the IOS file provide to the network administrator? (Choose three.)
  • the amount of NVRAM required to run the image
  • the hardware platform the image runs on*
  • the various software platforms the image can run on
  • special features and capabilities of the image*
  • the bandwidth supported by the IOS
  • where the image executes from and if it has been compressed*

10 Which of the following statements concerning router interface modes are correct? (Choose three.)
  • User EXEC mode provides commands to monitor router operation.*
  • Privileged EXEC mode only provides commands to change or configure router operation.
  • Password protected configuration modes can be accessed from either user EXEC or privileged EXEC modes.
  • On a router with the name Core1, the prompt indicating privileged EXEC mode is Core1#.*
  • The command to enter privileged EXEC mode is Router# enable.
  • A username and password may be required to enter privileged EXEC mode.*

11 Which keystroke is used to move to the beginning of a command line?
  • Ctrl-A*
  • Ctrl-B
  • Esc-A
  • Esc-B
  • Ctrl-C
  • Ctrl-Z

12 Which tasks can be performed in the ROM monitor mode? (Choose two.)
  • recover from system failures*
  • create startup configuration files
  • recover from lost passwords*
  • configure IP addresses on all router interfaces
  • perform high level diagnostics

13 Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
  • load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration*
  • load bootstrap, apply configuration, load IOS
  • load IOS, load bootstrap, apply configuration, check hardware
  • check hardware, apply configuration, load bootstrap, load IOS

14 What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
  • NVRAM, FLASH, ROM
  • FLASH, TFTP,CONSOLE
  • NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE*
  • FLASH, TFTP, ROM

15 A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?
  • console
  • AUX
  • Telnet*
  • modem

16 Which command takes precedence if the commands enable password and enable secret are both configured on a router?
  • enable password
  • enable secret*
  • Neither. They are both enabled.
  • Neither. They cancel each other out.

17 Which connection method can be used to perform the initial configuration of a router?
  • use a serial connection of a computer connected to the console port of a router*
  • telnet to the router through a serial port
  • use a vty port through the Ethernet interface
  • use a modem connected to the AUX port of the router

18 Which keystrokes can be used to return to the privileged mode from the interface configuration mode?
  • Ctrl-P
  • Ctrl-Shift-6, then X
  • Ctrl-Z*
  • Esc

19 Under what conditions does the router enter setup mode? (Choose three.)
  • immediately after issuing the command Router#erase start
  • after issuing the command Router#setup*
  • during the initial configuration of a router*
  • after deleting the backup configuration and reloading the router*
  • after deleting the running configuration

20 In your opinion (this has no bearing on your grade), please indicate how enthusiastic you are about the content of this course and the things you’re learning (or have learned):
  • (1) Not At All Enthusiastic
  • (2) Slightly Enthusiastic
  • (3) Enthusiastic
  • (4) Very Enthusiastic
  • (5) Completely Enthusiastic

21 In your opinion (this has no bearing on your grade), please rate your motivation to do well in this course:
  • (1) Not At All Motivated*
  • (2) Slightly Motivated
  • (3) Motivated
  • (4) Very Motivated
  • (5) Completely Motivated

22 In your opinion (this has no bearing on your grade), please indicate your interest in this course:
  • (1) Not At All Interested
  • (2) Slightly Interested
  • (3) Interested
  • (4) Very Interested
  • (5) Completely Interested
SMS Gratis